hebrew
1)

Having already written "ve'eis ha'Keves ha'Sheini Ta'aseh bein ha'Arbayim" in Pasuk4, why does the Torah repeat it?

1.

Sifri: To teach us that the Kohanim must bring the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim 1 even if they did not bring the Tamid shel Boker. 2

1

See Torah Temimah, note 26.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 27.

2)

Why does the Torah need to repeat ?Re?ach Nicho?ach? by the Tamid shel bein ha?Arbayim?

1.

Seforno: To teach us that, Hashem derives as much pleasure from the Tamid shel bein ha?Arbayim, even though it is exactly the same as the Tamid hel Shachar.

3)

What are the ramifications of the comparison of the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim to the Minchas ha?Boker?

1.

Yoma, 34a: It teaches us that the Ketores shel Bein ha'Arbayim precedes the Nesachim (but not before the Evarim), 1 like the Ketores shel Boker.

1

Since the Torah did not write ?ke Keves ha?Boker? ?where the Ketores precedes the Evarim. See Torah Temimah, citing Yoma, ibid.

4)

Why does the Torah compare the Tamid shel bein ha'Arbayim to the morning Minchah and not to the actual Korban?

1.

Yoma 34a: To teach us that the Ketores shel bein ha'Arbayim precedes the Nesachim but not the Evarim, 1 which are brought in between the Ketores and the Nesachim. 2

1

As it does in the morning.

2

See Torah Temimsh, note 29.

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