1)
Why does it say that Achish gave Tziklag to David, and therefore it belonged to Malchei Yehudah? It is listed among cities of Yehudah (15:31) from the days of Yehoshua!
1.
Radak (5) #1: It was written there because in the end, it belonged to Malchei Yehudah.
2.
Radak (5) #2: Perhaps Yisrael conquered it in the days of Yehoshua, and afterwards Pelishtim conquered it, and from when David dwelled there, it belonged to Malchei Yehudah. This is why it says Malchei Yehudah, and not just 'Yehudah'.
