hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah discuss the redemption of one's house twice - in the current Pasuk and in Pasuk 15?

1.

Yerushalmi Shekalim, 4:4: The current Pasuk is referring, not to a house, but to one's property, and it teaches us that Hekdeishos go to Bedek ha'Bayis. 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 66, who elaborates.

2)

What are the implications of the word "ve?Ish ki Yakdish es Beiso"?

1.

Bava Kama, 68b & 69a: It implies that a person can only redeem a house a. that belongs to him 1 and b. that is under his jurisdiction - to preclude property that he gave tois creditor as a security. 2

1

See Torah Temimah, note 67.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 68, who elaborates..

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