Why does the Torah place Menasheh before Efrayim here, when in Bamidbar, 1:22 & 24, it gave precedence to Efrayim?
Oznayim la'Torah: In Bamidbar, where Efrayim was more numerouus than Menasheh, the Torah gave precedence to Efrayim, according to the ruling of Ya'akov. Whereas here, where, beised being the firstborn, was also the larger tribe, the Torah lists Efrayim first, as per the request of Yosef. 1
See Vay'chi, Bereishis, 48:19 & 20.
?Eileh Mishp?chos Levi - Mishpachas ha?Livni, Mishpachas ha?Chevroni?. Why does the Torah not include "Mishpachas ha'Amrami", like it does by all the other families?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because Kohanim also emerged from the family, and the Torah wants to emphasize the fact that also they are included in "Pikudei ha'Levi".
