hebrew
1)

What are the connotations of "ve'Lakach Avi ha'Na'arah ... "? What exactly did they take?

1.

Rashi, Targum Yonasan: It means that the girl's parents should obtain permission from the Beis-Din to proceed. 1

2.

Rashbam: It means the cloth containing the Dam Besulim.

1

Refer to 17:17:1:2, which indicates that Rashi follows the opinion of Targum Yonasan here.

2)

Seeing as "Velakach" refers to both parents, why does the Torah write in the singular?

1.

Ramban (in Pasuk 16): Because the father is the husband's litigant, since he is the one who stands to receive the K'nas. 1

1

See Ramban, in Pasuk 17, DH 've'Chein Ta'am ha'Parshah'. Refer also to 22:16:1:1.

3)

Having written " ve'Lakach (singular) Avi ha'Na'arah ... ", why does the Torah write "ve'Hotzi'u" (plural)?

1.

Sifri: To teach us that the Parshah of Motzi-Shem-Ra applies even if the girl has no father or mother - in which case others take out the cloth.

4)

Why does the Torah make a point of mentioning the girl's parent's (See Sifsei Chachamim)?

1.

Rashi: So that the ones who were responsible for her upbringing should be shamed on her account. 1

1

Assuming that she is guilty - Refer to 22:21:1:1. See Torah Temimah, note 135, who elaborates.

5)

What does the Torah mean when it writes "ve'Hotzi'u es Besulei ha'Na'arah"?

1.

Rashbam: It means that they should produce the cloth that contains the blood-stain of her virginity. 1

1

Refer to 22:17:1:2.

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