Why does the Torah insert the word "Vera'ah ha'Kohen"?
What is the corollary between "ve'Yatza ha'Kohen el mi'Chutz la'Machaneh" and "ve'Huva el ha'Kohen"?
Rashi: Since the Metzora has to go to the Kohen in order to be declared Tahor, 1 the Kohen must go outside all three camps, 2 to wherever the Metzora is residing (or to a location just outside the walls [Seforno]), in order to be accessible to him. 3
Moshav Zekenim (citing the Sifra): The Pasuk implies that the Kohen was inside the Machaneh. This teaches that a Kohen who is a Metzora cannot be Metaher another Metzora.
From which the Metzora was sent once he was declared a Muchlat (Rashi). Moshav Zekenim implies that. Refer also to 13:46:2:1**.
And the Torah begins with "Vehuva el ha'Kohen to stress that when the Metzora wants to become Tahor, he has no option other than to do it via a Kohen (Ramban). Refer also to 14:2:152:2.
What are the implications of "ve'Hinei Nirpa Nega ... "?
Megilah, 8b: It implies that it is only a Metzora Muchlat
See Torah Temimah, note 13.
Why did the see fit to add the words "Nega ha'Tzara'as min"? Why did it not write simply "ve'Hinei Nirpa ha'Nega"?
Sifra: We learn from "Vehinei Nirpa" that he is cured
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "min ha'Tzaru'a"?
