"ki Yachris Hashem ? es ha'Goyim asher Atah Ba Shamah Lareshes osam". Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Lareshes osam"?
Ba'al ha'Turim: ?To dispossess them' 1 - but not to take taxes from them; ?Them' (the Cana'anim) - but not other nations, from whom you may take taxes
Targm Onkelos and Targum Yonasan translate it ?to drive them out'. It is not clear however, why it does not contradict the Pasuk in Shoftim 20:16 "Lo Sechayeh Kol Neshamah".
"ki Yachris Hashem ? es ha'Goyim asher Atah Ba Shamah Lareshes osam". If Hashem destroys the nations, why does the Torah then ascribe the victory to Yisrael?
Rosh: As opposed to human kings, whose legions go in front of them in war, and when they win, they make a victory crown for him and proclaim him victorious. Hashem makes war and wins, and gives the crown to Yisrael. 1
Rosh: Like we find when the Pasuk states in Tehilim 136:17 "Lemakeh Mitzrayim ... le'Sichon ? u'le'Og", yet in Yehoshua 12:6 it writes "Moshe? u'Venei Yisrael Hikum", and when it states in Yehoshua 10:11, "Hashem Hishlich Aleihem?", yet in 12:7 it writes "va'Asher Hikah Yehoshua u'Venei Yisrael",
What are the connotations of the word "La'reshes osam mi'Panecha"?
Rashbam: It refers to the previous phrase - "Ki Yachris Hashem Elokecha es ha'Goyim ? mi'Panecha".
Rosh: As opposed to human kings, whos legions go in front of them in war, and when they win, they make a victory crown for him, and proclaim him victorious. Hashem makes war and wins, and gives the crown to Yisrael. 1
Rosh: Like we find when the Pasuk states in Tehilim 136:17 "le'Makeh Mitzrayim?. Le'Sichon? u'le'Og" yet in Yehoshua 12:6 it writes "Moshe? u'Venei Yisrael Hikum", and when it states in Yehoshua 10:11, "Hashem Hishlich Aleihem?", yet in 12:7 it writes "va'Asher Hikah Yehoshua u'Venei Yisrael",
What are the implications of "Veyashavta be'Artzam"?
