Bava Basra, 21a: Initially, someone who had no father would grow-up to be an Am ha'Aretz - until Yehoshua ben Gamla (may his name be remembered for the good) came and introduced the concept of Chadarim - where the children would learn with a Rebbe. See Torah Temimah, note 46, who elaborates.
And when he does so, he instills Chochmah into his son (Yerushalmi Kidushin, 1:7).
2)
Having written "Veshinantam le'Vanecha ... " in Va'eschanan, in 6:7, why does the Torah repeat here "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem"?
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Ramban: Because (in Va'eschanan), "Veshinantam le'Vanecha", refers to teaching one's children the Mitzvos, "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem" to teach them well, until they are fully conversant with them, to the point that they discuss them at all times.
2.
B?rachos, 46b: To teach us 'she'Yehei Limudach Tam' (the acronym of "Velimadtem"), to make a break between two words where the last letter of one is the same as the first letter of the other - such as 'be'ChoL Levavcha" and " "Va'avadtemM Meheirah".
3.
Kidushin, 29b: To compare "u'Lemadtem osam" ('You shall learn them') - in Va'eschanan, 5:1 to "Velimadtem osam" ('You shall teach them')
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here - to teach us that, since women are not subject to being taught Torah,
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they are also exempt from learning it themselves; and vice-versa - Since they are not obligated ti learn it themselves, they are Patur from teaching it to their children.
4.
Yerushalmi B?rachos, 2:3: To compare Keri'as Sh?ma and Tefilin to Talmud Torah - to teach us that, since women are not subject to the latter, they are also Patur from the former.
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Why does the Torah change from "Veshinantam le'Vanecha" in Va'eschanan, 6:7 to "Velimadtem osam es Beneichem"?
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Oznayim la'Torah: Because here, as opposed to there, the Torah is speaking to all the fathers in general, most of whom are not experts who are able to answer all their children's questions immediately, therefore the Torah is instructing them to teach them the basics.
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See Torah Temimah, note 48, who points out that teaching one's daughter is even prohibitded, and elaborates.
5)
Having written "Vedibarta bam" in Va'eschanan, in 6:7, why does the Torah repeat here "Ledaber bam"?
1.
Rashi: To teach us that, the moment a child is able to speak, one should teach him to say the Pasuk "Torah Tzivah lanu Moshe ... ". And from here, Chazal learned that as soon as the child is able to speak, his father should speak with him in Lashon ha'Kodesh and teach him ('Torah Tzivah lanu Moshe ... ' - and the first Pasuk of Keri'as Sh?ma - Sukah, 42).
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2.
Ramban: To teach us that one is obligated to teach them in depth until they become so fluent in Divrei Torah that they are able to discuss Divrei Torah with their fathers at all times.
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3.
Seforno: With reference to 11:19:1:2, to teach us that they become so accustomed to the MItzvos that they discuss them at all times.
Rashi: Otherwise, it is as if he has buried him. See Torah Temimah, citing the Sifri, and note 52, where he discusses the obligation to teach a child Lashon ha'Kodesh.
Having already stated "Vedibarta Bam" in Va'eschanan, 6:7, why does the Torah repeat it here?
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Ramban: The Pasuk in Va'eschnan is referring to a person himself speaking Divrei Torah at all times wherever it is referring to teaching one's children to do likewise.
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