What is the meaning of the phrase "Daber Na"?
Rashi: "Na" means "please."
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means 'now.' 1
Refer to Bamidbar 12:13:2.1:1.
Why did Moshe need to plead with Yisrael to borrow Keilim from the Mitzrim?
Rashi: In order to prevent Avraham from complaining that Hashem fulfilled "va'Avadum v'Inu Osam," but not "v'Acharei Chein Yeitze'u bi'Rechush Gadol" (Bereishis 15:13). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 1, as to why Hashem was not worried that Yisrael might complain.
What was the significance of the vessels that Yisrael asked from the Egyptians?
Oznayim la'Torah: Some say that it was based on the Din of Ha'anakah - the money and goods that the master is obligated to pay an Eved Ivri when he leaves. 1
If "v'Yish'alu" means that they should borrow the vessels, it was to lure the Egyptians to the Yam Suf to retrieve them, in order to drown them there. Whereas if it means that they should ask them (to give them for keeps), 2 it was to pay 3 for all those years of hard labor. 4
What is the meaning of "v'Yish'alu Ish me'Es Re'eihu"?
Rashbam and Rosh: It means that they should ask the Egyptians for their silver and golden vessels as a gift. 1
Hadar Zekenim and Moshav Zekenim (citing ha'Chasid): It means that they should borrow from the Egyptians. 2
Kol Eliyahu: In this Pasuk, Hashem was instructing Bnei Yisrael to borrow Keilim from other Yisre'elim. Also refer to 12:35:152:1 and its note.
Rosh: As in Tehilim 2:8. Rashi implies this in his comments to 12:36, but in Rashi to 14:8, he implies that it was a loan.
Why did Hashem add the word "b'Oznei ha'Am"?
Oznayim la'Torah: To keep it secret from the Egyptians. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: Which they did - demonstrating that were cured from the Lashon ha'Ra that they spoke in Egypt - refer to Shemos 2:14:3:2 - and they were therefore worthy of redemption. See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Daber Na' #2.
Seeing as Pesukim 11:4-8 were also said by Hashem to Moshe, why did the Torah not include them here?
Ramban: Because it is the way of the Torah to sometimes insert things that Hashem said to Moshe, and to take for granted that Moshe told the people, and sometimes vice-versa. 1
Why does the Pasuk say now [at the time of Hashem's command] that He gave Yisrael grace in the eyes of the Egyptians, if this would only occur later, when they actually borrowed (see 12:35)?
Ramban: Although the Pasuk is written in the past tense, it is really referring to the future.
Refer to 12:35:152:1.
How could Hashem describe the Egyptians as "Re'ehu" and "Re'usah," considering that throughout the Torah, 'Re'a' comes to exclude a Nochri?
Oznayim la'Torah: That only applies after Matan Torah, when Hashem divided Yisrael from among the nations, who then adopted an instinctive hatred towards Yisrael. 1 Moreover, Nochrim admire people when they demonstrate strength. 2 Hence, immediately following Makas Bechoros, the Egyptians became Yisrael's friends.
According to those who explain "v'Yish'alu" to mean 'they should borrow,' how could Yisrael borrow and not return?
Hadar Zekenim: It was not theft, since they gave them the articles in order that they leave promptly. 1
Moshav Zekenim (citing the Chasid): Because they stipulated that, in the event that they do not return, their fields and vineyards would be collateral.' 2
This implies that it was a gift! ( PF) Hadar Zekenim said that even though the Egyptians hated Yisrael, Hashem gave them grace in their eyes. Also, they relied on Moshe not to allow them to do injustice (not return the vessels).
From where did Yisrael get fields and vineyards? The Midrash says that Egyptians purchased water from Yisrael during the plague of Dam, but the land belonged to Pharaoh! Perhaps the priests of Egypt, who owned their own land (Bereishis 47:26), gave it for water [or animals - refer to 7:22:1:5 and to 9:6:151:1*] (PF).
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "Daber Na...' - The word Na is an expression of request; 'I ask of you [Moshe], to warn them about [fulfilling] this, so that the Tzadik (Avraham) will not say...." Why does Rashi explain this way?
Gur Aryeh: Why did Hashem need to tell us to take the treasures - something that was for our own benefit? Rather, because the Bnei Yisrael might have thought that they could opt not to receive that benefit. Hashem asked Moshe (it was not a Mitzvah, but a request), to please make sure Bnei Yisrael would do this, so that His promise to Avraham would be fulfilled. 1
Gur Aryeh first explains why this directive was needed; we then also understand why it was only a request and not a command. (EK)
Rashi writes [citing Berachos 9b] that Yisrael should ask for Keilim, in case Avraham complains that Hashem kept only the harsh part of His promise. But complaints notwithstanding, Hashem should fulfill His promise in its entirety?
Kol Eliyahu: The real redemption was at Keri'as Yam Suf, from which Yisrael became incredibly wealthy. Only Avraham could err to think that the it was leaving Egypt itself. Therefore, Hashem asked them to take now, so that, even according to Avraham's mistake, he will have no complaints. 1
Why couldn't Hashem simply tell Avraham that the real Ge'ulah will be take place six days later, and then they will leave with great wealth? Perhaps He wanted to spare him the pain of knowing that there will be more afflictions until then. This is like Kol Eliyahu's resolution of difficulties with the parable in the Gemara there; see it inside! (PF)
