1)
(a)What does Rebbi Ami say about someone who designates Ma'aser-Sheini money to purchase Shelamim?
(b)Why is that?
(c)But did we not just learn that one is permitted to buy a Shelamim with Ma'aser-Sheini money?
1)
(a)Rebbi Ami rules that if someone designates Ma'aser-Sheini money to purchase Shelamim - the money does not adopt the Kedushah of Shelamim (and he may use it to buy other things) ...
(b)... because the Kedushas Shelamim cannot override that of Ma'aser-Sheini.
(c)Indeed we just learned that one is permitted to buy a Shelamim with Ma'aser-Sheini money - because that entails transferring the Kedushah from the former on to the latter; but superimposing one Kedushah on to another is something else.
2)
(a)What is the difference between S'tam Chayos and S'tam Beheimos that one purchases with Ma'aser-Sheini money?
(b)And what happens to their skins?
(c)What does the Mishnah in Ma'aser-Sheini say about the skins in a case where one purchased a Chayah as a Shelamim or a Beheimah to eat as Chulin?
2)
(a)Whereas S'tam Chayos that one purchases with Ma'aser-Sheini money eaten as Chulin - S'tam Beheimos are brought as Shelamim.
(b)Either way, their skins - go out to Chulin.
(c)The Mishnah in Ma'aser-Sheini states that in a case where one purchased a Chayah as a Shelamim or a Beheimah to eat as Chulin - the skins do not go out to Chulin (see Rabeinu Gershom).
3)
(a)How do we initially interpret the Din of the skin? Why is this a Kashya on Rebbi Ami?
(b)We answer the Kashya by citing Rav. How did Rav explain the Mishnah's ruling 'Lo Yeitzei ha'Or le'Chulin'?
(c)Rabah explains that this is because it is as if he had purchased an ox specifically for plowing. What does he mean by that?
3)
(a)Initially, we interpret the Din of the skin to mean - that the animal automatically adopts Kedushas Shelamim (to purchase with it a Shelamim animal), from which it appears that the Kedushah of Shelamim does take effect on Ma'aser (a Kashya on Rebbi Ami).
(b)We answer the Kashya by citing Rav, who explained the Mishnah's ruling 'Lo Yeitzei ha'Or le'Chulin' to mean - that it is not subject to going out to Chulin, because it is not Kodesh to begin with.
(c)Rabah explains that this is because it is as if he had purchased an ox specifically for plowing, by which he means - that we treat the skin as if the owner specifically stipulated that it should be Chulin (like the Basar), and not like the Din of 'S'tam'.
4)
(a)Rebbi Yochanan disagrees with Rebbi Ami. According to him, if someone designates Ma'aser-Sheini money to purchase Shelamim, the money adopts the sanctity of Shelamim. What does Rebbi Elazar say?
(b)We establish their Machlokes according to Rebbi Meir, who holds 'Ma'aser Mamon Gavohah'. What does Rebbi Yehudah hold?
(c)What are the ramifications of the Machlokes between Rebbi Meir and Rebbi Yehudah?
(d)How will that explain why according to Rebbi Yehudah, even Rebbi Elazar will agree that the money acquires the Kedushah of Shelamim?
(e)If Rebbi Yochanan holds like Rebbi Meir, why does the Ma'aser money adopt the Kedushah of Shelamim?
4)
(a)Rebbi Yochanan disagrees with Rebbi Ami. According him, if someone designates Ma'aser-Sheini money to purchase Shelamim, the money adopts the sanctity of Shelamim. Rebbi Elazar concurs with Rebbi Ami.
(b)We establish their Machlokes according to Rebbi Meir, who holds 'Ma'aser Mamon Gavohah'. Rebbi Yehudah holds - 'Ma'aser Mamon Hedyot' ...
(c)... in which case the money may be used to betroth a woman; whereas Rebbi Meir forbids it.
(d)Rebbi Elazar will agree that, according to Rebbi Yehudah, the money acquires the Kedushah of Shelamim - because there is no reason why the Kedushah of Shelamim should not take effect on money of Chulin.
(e)Even though Rebbi Yochanan holds like Rebbi Meir, the Ma'aser money adopts the Kedushah of Shelamim - because, to an extent, Ma'aser-Sheini money already incorporates Kedushas Shelamim, inasmuch as an animal that one buys with it S'tam is brought as a Shelamim.
5)
(a)What does the Beraisa say about someone who redeems Ma'aser money that he designated as a Shelamim?
(b)On whom does this Beraisa now pose a Kashya?
(c)How will he establish the Beraisa?
5)
(a)The Beraisa rules that someone who redeems Ma'aser money that he designated as a Shelamim - must add two fifths, one because of the Kedushas Shelamim), and one because it is Ma'aser ...
(b)... a Kashya on Rebbi Elazar ...
(c)... who answers - by establishing the author of the Beraisa as Rebbi Yehudah.
6)
(a)What is the problem with the Pasuk in Re'ei "Vezavachta Pesach la'Hashem Elokecha Tzon u'Vakar"?
(b)What does our Mishnah therefore learn from there?
(c)And what does the Tana mean when he refers to 'Davar she'be'Chovah'? Which category of Shelamim or Todah for example, is one permitted to purchase from Ma'aser-Sheini money?
(d)What is the exception to this latter ruling?
6)
(a)The problem with the Pasuk in Re'ei "Ve'zavachta Pesach la'Hashem Elokecha Tzon u'Vakar" is - that the Korban Pesach comprises either a sheep or a goat (Tzon), but not a calf (Bakar).
(b)Our Mishnah therefore - interprets the Pasuk as a 'Hekesh', comparing all obligatory Korbanos to the Korban Pesach, which comes from Chulin money.
(c)And when the Tana refers to 'Davar she'be'Chovah' - he incorporates Korbanos which a person obligates himself to bring (by declaring 'Harei alai' [Nedarim]). Someone who declares 'Harei Zu Shelamim' or 'Harei Zu le'Todah' (which is a Nedavah) will take effect even on Ma'aser-Sheini money.
(d)The exception to this latter ruling is Nesachim - which may only be purchased with Chulin money and not with Ma'aser, even in the form of a Nedavah (and which one is obligated to bring even if one declared 'Harei alai Zevach', without mentioning the Nesachim).
7)
(a)Rebbi Eliezer, in a Beraisa, cited the source for the above Din of Pesach as Pesach Mitzrayim. How does he know that Pesach Mitzrayim was brought from Chulin?
(b)What objection did Rebbi Akiva raise to this?
(c)What was Rebbi Eliezer's response to that?
7)
(a)Rebbi Eliezer, in a Beraisa, cited the source for the above Din of Pesach as Pesach Mitzrayim, which he knows was brought from Chulin - because Ma'aser Sheini did not yet exist.
(b)Rebbi Akiva objected to this however - due to the principle 'Ein Danin Efshar mi'she'I Efshar' (one cannot learn something that is possible from something that is not).
(c)Rebbi Eliezer's response to that was - to simply reject the principle.
8)
(a)How did Rebbi Akiva further query Rebbi Eliezer, based on the fact that there was no Mizbe'ach in Mitzrayim?
(b)What did Rebbi Eliezer reply, based on the Pasuk in Bo (in connection with the Pesach Doros) "Va'avadta es ha'Avodah ha'Zos ba'Chodesh ha'Zeh?
8)
(a)Rebbi Akiva persisted however, and further queried Rebbi Eliezer, based on the fact that there was no Mizbe'ach in Mitzrayim (only the two door-posts and the lintel) - in which case there was no Matan Damim ve'Emurin (in which case, Pesach Doros, where there was, might also need to be brought from Chulin).
(b)Rebbi Eliezer replied - by citing the Pasuk in Bo "Va'avadta es ha'Avodah ha'Zos ba'Chodesh ha'Zeh" - comparing all Avodos of the month of Nisan (of subsequent years) to Pesach Mitzrayim.
82b----------------------------------------82b
9)
(a)If, as it appears from the fact that Rebbi Akiva asked the Pircha on Rebbi Eliezer from 'Matan Damim ve'Emurim', he retracted from the S'vara of 'Ein Danin Efshar mi'she'I Efshar', what can we ask on him from Pesach Midbar?
(b)How do we therefore establish Rebbi Akiva? If he did not retract from his initial S'vara, why did he ask the second Pircha?
(c)By the same token, why did Rebbi Eliezer need to come on to the Pasuk "Va'avadta"? Why did he not answer Rebbi Akiva from Pesach Midbar (as we just explained)?
9)
(a)If, as it appears from the fact that Rebbi Akiva asked the Pircha on Rebbi Eliezer from 'Matan Damim ve'Emurim', he retracted from the S'vara of 'Ein Danin Efshar mi'she'I Efshar', we can counter his proof from Pesach Midbar - which could not be brought from Ma'aser (which had not yet been introduced), even though it required Matan Damim ve'Emurim on the Mizbe'ach. Consequently, if Rebbi Akiva no longer holds 'Ein Danin ... ', he could nevertheless learn Pesach Doros from Pesach Midbar.
(b)So we conclude - that he did not really retract at all, and his second Pircha was simply intended to refute Rebbi Eliezer (who holds 'Danin Efshar mi'shi'I Efshar' [even though he {Rebbi Akiva} does not]).
(c)By the same token, Rebbi Eliezer (who could have answered Rebbi Akiva from Pesach Midbar [as we just explained]) needed to come on to the Pasuk "Va'avadta" - to refute Rebbi Akiva, who holds 'Ein Danin ... ' (even though he [Rebbi Eliezer] does not).
10)
(a)What reason does Rav Sheishes give to explain why Rebbi Akiva did not still ask on the Hekesh 'V'chi Danin Efshar mi'she'I Efshar'?
(b)Why can one ask a Pircha on a 'Kal va'Chomer', but not on a 'Hekesh' or 'Gezeirah-Shavah'?
10)
(a)The reason Rav Sheishes gives to explain why Rebbi Akiva did not still ask on the Hekesh 'V'chi Danin Efshar mi'she'I Efshar' is - because of the principle 'Ein Mashivin al ha'Hekesh' (one cannot query a Hekesh).
(b)One can ask a Pircha on a 'Kal va'Chomer', but not on a 'Hekesh' or 'Gezeirah-Shavah' - because whereas one can Darshen the former from one's own logic, the latter are 'Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai' (see Seifer 'Eizehu Mekoman').
11)
(a)In 'Tarbitza', they queried how one can possibly learn the Din of 'Ba min ha'Chulin' by Todah from Pesach Doros. What does 'Tarbitza' mean?
(b)What is the problem with learning Todah from Pesach Doros with a Hekesh?
(c)What do we answer? What makes this case different than a regular case of 'Hekesh min ha'Hekesh'?
11)
(a)In 'Tarbitza' - (the Beis-Hamedrash ['she'Marbitzin bah Torah {where they spread Torah}]'), they queried how one can possibly learn the Din of 'Ba min ha'Chulin' by Todah from Pesach Doros.
(b)The problem with learning Todah from Pesach Doros with a Hekesh is - that we learned Pesach Doros from Pesach Mitzrayim (or from Pesach Midbar) with a Hekesh, and we have a principle that 'One cannot learn one Hekesh from another Hekesh, in the realm of Kodshim'.
(c)And we answer that this case is different than a regular case of 'Hekesh min ha'Hekesh' - because, seeing as the first Hekesh learns Pesach from Pesach, the second Hekesh is considered as if we were learning Todah from Pesach S'tam.
12)
(a)We cite Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Eliezer, who quotes the Pasuk in Tzav "Zos ha'Torah, la'Olah, ve'la'Minchah, ve'la'Chatas, ve'le'Asham, ve'la'Milu'im, u'le'Zevach ha'Shelamim". Why do we cite Shmuel? What are we searching for?
(b)From "Olah", Rebbi Eliezer learns that all Korbanos require a K'li, just like Olah. We suggest that perhaps this refers to bowls for Kabalas ha'Dam. Where does the Torah mentions bowls with reference to Olos?
(c)On what grounds do we refute this suggestion?
(d)Then what is the 'K'li' of Rebbi Eliezer referring to?
(e)Where does the Torah mention a Shechitah knife by Olah?
12)
(a)We cite Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Eliezer, who quotes the Pasuk in Tzav "Zos ha'Torah, la'Olah, ve'la'Minchah, ve'la'Chatas, ve'le'Asham, ve'la'Milu'im, u'le'Zevach ha'Shelamim" - because we are searching for a source that Pesachim must come from Chulin according to Rebbi Akiva (see Tosfos DH 've'Hashta Nami', and Seifer 'Eizehu Mekoman').
(b)From "Olah", Rebbi Eliezer learns that all Korbanos require a K'li, just like Olah. We suggest that perhaps this refers to bowls for Kabalas ha'Dam - which the Torah mentions in Mishpatim in connection with the Korbanos that they sacrificed prior to Matan Torah.
(c)We refute this suggestion however - on the grounds that this Pasuk also refers to the Zivchei Shalmei Tzibur (on Shavu'os) that were brought there (so how do we know to learn the Din of K'li by other Korbanos from Olah and not from Shelamim).
(d)So the 'K'li' of Rebbi Eliezer must therefore be referring to - a Shechitah knife ...
(e)... which we find by the Akeidah (in Vayeira), which was an Olah, as the Torah explicitly states there.