What is the difference , as of the Lason Hagmara, between "Haya Omer" to "Amar", or "Haya Meshane" to "Shinna". Seems to me that the first one the translation is "used to say" (haya omer) and the second one is "said" (amar). "HOO HAYA OMMER" (all over Pirkei Avot") "Haya Meshane Mipnei Hashalom" (Masechet Beitaza, Daf 20 amud Alef, Peirush Rashi). Seems to me that here Rashi meant that Hillel used to change (use to lie) for the sake of peace, like "Noheg Haya", and not just this case.
Am I right?
Thanks,
Aaron Gal, Fair Lawn, NJ, USA
Dear Aron,
"Haya Omer" seems to be what is called past perfect tense, or a continuing past.
So Rashi can be understood as you wrote. Another possibility is that Rashi is writing as if he is narrating the Ma'aseh as it happens.
All the best,
Reuven Weiner