Why did R' Zeira not accept R' Elozor's explanation which would have been a more palatable reason, being that Esther was a Tzadekess and was probably 'marbeh b' Tefiloh rather than comparing her to a hind?
Sholem, UK
R' Elozor is not comparing Esther to Ayeles and is not coming to answer the question posed by Rabbi Avahu and R' Zeira. They are asking why the chapter referring to Esther starts with the analogy to a hind. R' Elozor on the other hand does not refer to Esther but to the word Shachar juxtaposed to a hind. He understands Shachar to mean prayer (as it does in various texts in Tehillim) and derives from this that prayer works like a hind's horns, requiring more and more prayer to achieve the goals required.
R' Zeira on the other hand is referring to the anomaly that Esther found favor in the eyes of a king who has seen daily so many other girls. He explained that she had unique attraction for him since she always seemed virginal. A similar explanation is made by Rabbi Zeira's predecessor Rav, see Megillah 13a.
Yoel Domb