The mishna state the 4 following procedures:
1) We bring the kohen Gadol to Bais Haparve, which is kodesh.
2) a linen sheet was raised between him and the Om.
3)He washes his hands and feet
4) and removes his clothing.
Since step #3, "Kadesh", takes place in the Azoro by the Kiyor, why do we take him first to Bais Haparva? Shouldn't step # 3 be the first step?
The Mishnah later (43b) answers your question. It says that although throughout the rest of the year, the Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim was done at the Kiyor (not near the Beis ha'Parveh), on Yom Kipur the Kohen Gadol did his Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim "from the Kiton Shel Zahav," a golden utensil that was brought from the Kiyor to the Beis ha'Parveh, where the Kohen would immerse and dress, and there he would wash his hands and feet as well.
On the answer given to the question of the manner and place of the Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim, you cited the Mishnah (43b), which says that although throughout the rest of the year, the Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim was done at the Kiyor (not near the Beis ha'Parveh), on Yom Kipur the Kohen Gadol did his Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim "from the Kiton Shel Zahav," a golden utensil that was brought from the Kiyor to the Beis 'Parveh, where the Kohen would immerse and dress, and there he would wash his hands and feet as well.
I noticed that Rashi says on the Mishnah on 31b that the Kohen Gadol washed his hands from the kiyor. Why does he say that? Where did he get that from? Also, according to Rashi, the original question R' Nosson Munk asked is unanswered.
The TOSFOS YOM TOV asks your question there on the Mishnah. It seems that Rashi means to say that the Kiton Shel Zahav is *filled with water from the Kiyor* and not from other water that is not Mekudash. The Tosfos Yom Tov points out that the ROSH writes explicitly in this Mishnah that the Kohen washed from the *Kiton*.
However, the RASHASH suggests that we may differentiate between the Kidush Yadayim v'Raglayim done at the time of the first Tevilah, with that which is done at the time of the other Tevilos. After the first Tevilah, there is an explicit opinion in the Yerushalmi which maintains that the Kidush was done from the Kiyor and not from the Kiton. That does not pose a problem to the answer to the question of R' Nosson Munk (that is, why was the Kohen Gadol brought to the Beis ha'Parveh before Tevilah and Kidush, if he would just have to go to the Kiyor to perform Kidush and return before being Tovel). The first Tevilah was not preceded by a Kidush; there was a Kidush only afterwards (once he is already wearing the Bigdei Kodesh). Thus he did not have to go back and forth; he was Tovel for the first time, donned the Bigdei Kodesh, went to the Kiyor to do Kidush, and then proceeded directly to the Avodos. (Rebbi Meir, who maintains that there *was* a Kidush before the first Tevilah, presumably would *not* send the Kohen Gadol to the Beis ha'Parveh before the first Tevilah until after he did Kidush.)
Which answers the other obvious question of according to Rebbi Meir who holds that the Kiddush Yodaim Vraglaim was done twice fore every levisha first after the pishut of the previous begadim how would the Kohen Gadol be unclothed by the Kiyar. Tosafos said earlier (havent got a gemarah with me to say exactly where) that the reason that the Payas was done in the Lishkas Hagazis and not in the Azarah Proper despite the maaloh of "Bais Elokim nehalech biragesh" was (one reason) it would be a genai for the Kohen to stand with his head uncovered in the Azarah. If its a genai for him to be with his head uncovered Kal Vechomer Ben benoi shel Kal V'chomer to be totaly Arum in the Azarah.
Yaakov Y. Fischer
Thank you for your insight! (You are referring to Tosfos on 25a, DH v'Ha.)