If spmeone converts to Judaism and their kelim are already kosher (they have been keeping)..do their kelim need to be toiveled? what happens practically?
hg schild, ny usa
The Yerushalmi Talmud (Avodah Zarah 5:15) states that Tevilah is necessary because the vessel has gone from "Tumaso Shel Goy l'Kedushaso Shel Yisrael". Accordingly, it would follow, that vessels of a Ger would require Tevilah. In fact, this is the Psak of Rav Shmuel Vosner (Shevet haLevi 6:245).
Rav Moshe Sternbuch told me that the vessels of a Ger do require Tevilah but without a Berachah. His reasoning is that the requirement of Tevilah is ultimately a Gezeiras ha'Kasuv from Kelei Midyan (Bamidbar 31:21) and therfore only in a situation which is similar to Kelei Midyan is there a requirement of Tevilah. In Kelei Midyan the vessels of the Midyanim were acquired by the Jews - there was a transfer of ownership. When a Ger converts his vessels don't transfer ownership. He doesn't have to reacquire his belongings after going through his Gerus - even though he is considered k'Katan she'Nolad. Therefore, since there is some doubt whether Tevilah is required, no Berachah is made.
Rav Wosner (ibid) addresses this point and says that the Kinyan the Jews made on the Kelei Minyan was certainly not the cause of the requirement to do Tevilah but rather the fact that the vessels went from the Reshus of a Goy to the Reshus of a Yisrael - as implied by the aforementioned Yerushalmi - which occurs when a Ger goes through his Gerus, and therefore a Berachah is required.
This is not a Psak Halachah