The Gemara says that Derachim can be used as masculine or feminine (depending on context), but if that's true then, later on the Gemara asks why don't we change Mishna to Devarim so that it can be masculine, but i thought we just said we could use derachim as masculine too, so why didn't Gemara instead ask, say instead in Mishna Shalosh Derachim if Derachim can be used as masculine too??!!
Donny, NY,United States
Sholom Rav,
The Gemara initially explains that the Mishnah uses the word 'Shalosh' (feminine) because of Derachim, which is sometimes feminine. And it justifies Shalosh (and not Sheloshah), because it is talking about a woman.
Now it asks that it should rather use the word 'Sheloshah' (since the Torah normally uses the masculine form). Consequently, it would be more appropriate to use the word 'Devarim', which is always masculine. This I believe, is how the Maharsha explains the Gemara's Kashya.
Be'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler