The Gemoro asks why the Torah need say that Shabbos applies beMoshvoisaichem (and answers by comparison with Yom Tov).
Why does the Gemoro not answer as in Shabbos 20a that the Posuk "Lo SeVaaru Eish BeChol Moshvosaichem..." excludes the Beis HaMikdosh?!
Following my previous query re. the need for Moshvoiseichem in connection with Shabbos (Gemoro Shabbos says this is used to exclude the Beis HaMikdosh), I notice that Tosfos (37a) asks this on Rashi, and says the Gemoro must mean a different posuk.
The questions does still remain: How did Rashi learn!
Mark Bergman, Manchester, UK
The Atzmos Yosef notes that the Derasha of Moshvoseichem in Shabbos (20a) is because we would not think that Shabbos would not apply in Chutz l'Aretz. Hence, when the Pasuk states Moshvoseichem it is an extra word (as we would have known this in any event), and the Gemara uses it for a Derashah. In fact, the Atzmos Yosef asks this as a question on Tosfos: what question is there from the Gemara in Shabbos (ibid.), which obviously understood that the Pasuk already included Chutz l'Aretz in the keeping of Shabbos? [For the answer, see Pnei Yehoshua at length.]
All the best,