The gemara seems to prove that ones hand cannot have a rule of a private domain nor can it have a rule of a public domain. My question is maybe it doesn't have a rule of either domain because that is the doamin of the body and the hand is not there. But why can't it have the rule of the domain that it is in.
For example the poor man is in r"r stretched his hand into r"y his hand doesn't have a rule of r"r. Fine I agree. But why can't it have a rule of r"y since that is where it is right now. Wouldn't it make sense to give it that rule. So Why is it so clear to the gemara that this is wrong?
menachem smith, bay harbor, fl
I assume that you are referring to the words of Abaye. Actually -- although Rashi explains that the proof from "Yado Shel Ani" is that it is not a Reshus ha'Rabim -- the Ritva and the Ran both learn that the proof from "Yado Shel Ani" is that it is not a Reshus ha'Yachid, as you suggested. However, Rashi is basing his explanation on the fact that "Yado Basar Gufo Garir," and the hand of the Ani is definitely not a Reshus ha'Yachid.