1) How in the world is it possible for a man to become a crut shafcha because the woman has pubic hair on her area, is this really a sakana anyway?
2) Why did the Gemara use the term "nima" then a nima means just a thread of hair there is definitaly no sakana from just 1 hair?
3) If this is all true, then women should do this today and remove their pubic hair so as not to cause their husbands to be upset?
Daniel Fishman, Lawrence America
1) First, if you look in the Otzar haPoskim to Even haEzer on Siman 5, you will find there the case of a young boy that got some type of string wrapped around his Ever haTashmish and this created a hole on the side of the Ever which led to the question of whether he had become a Krus Shafchah. So it seems that this sort of thing could cause problems without actually severing the Ever.
Second, a very great Talmid Chacham with whom I spoke to about your question, opined that the Gemara (Sanhedrin 21a) does not mean to say that Amnon was Halachically a Krus Shafchah, but only that he had been damaged in that area. Another Talmid Chacham thought that perhaps the damage hadn't been caused by constriction but rather by the hair getting lodged in the urethra and causing an infection.
2) See 1)
3) In fact, according to the Gemara (Sanhedrin 21a), Minhag of Bnos Yisrael was to remove the hair of Beis haShechi and Beis haErvah, and that Tamar did not remove that hair because she was a Bas Yefas Toar. The question is why is this no longer the Minhag of Bnos Yisrael? I did not find any discussion of this in the Poskim.
Kol Tuv,
Yonasan Sigler