On 29b, after discussion whether one shaliach can apppoint another, the Gemoro asks that maybe the husband appeased the wife and get is not valid. Maybe I missed something, but what has this to do with one shaliach appointing another? Wouldn't this apply in any case of a shalach bringing a get?
Meir Eliezer Bergman, Manchester UK
The Meiri (Beis Ha'Bechirah) addresses your question. The most simple opinion is that it indeed would. The Gemara is noy keying on the uniqueness of a shaliach appointing another shaliach, but rather whether or not the Get is valid for the reason that the husband may have appeased his wife. For other explanations, see the Meiri at length.
All the best,