The Gemorah on 44b says that the "avairah sh'beyadoe" is speaking between tefilin yad and tefilin rosh. Rashi says that the avairah is if he spoke between the two tefilin AND DID NOT REPEAT THE BROCHA. This implies that if he indeed said the brocha a second time, the mere hefsek of speaking between the two tefilin would not constitue an avairah sh'byado. Can I deduce from here the following two points:
1. Rashi holds that it is NOT assure to cause yourself to recite a bracho that you don't need.
2. Rashi holds that it would be "an avairah b'yado" for putting on tefilin w/o saying the correct bracho.
I hope that you can understand what I'm asking with the transliterations and translations required for me to ask my questions.
Thank you for your response, kol tuv,
sys
Shimon Yisroel Siegel, Natick, Ma, USA
Tosfos in Menachos 36a (DH Lo Sach) deduces exactly your points from Rashi. However, Tosfos himself argues and learns that it is a Berachah she'Eino Tzerichah. (This view of Rashi is the subject of considerable discussion among the Rishonim and Acharonim.)
Dov Zupnik