I have not been able to understand fully the last Rashi on Amud Aleph. You wrote in the Q/A section of the Daf:-
"b) In the latter case, it makes no difference whether he pays her the Kesuvah and sells what he wants before taking her back, or whether he takes her straight back, and writes her a fresh Kesuvah stipulating that whatever he has bought or will buy is all Meshubad towards her Kesuvah (see Tosfos DH 'Megarshah')."
Is this also Pshat in Rashi ? i.e. when Rashi starts talking about the second option "...whether he takes her straight back...", his Lashon is unclear to me.
If you will be referring to this in the Insights to the Daf (which are not yet out), I will look there.
Otherwise, perhaps you could enlighten me.
Shlomo Steinhart, Ramat Bet Shemesh, Israel
Rashi also is saying that once he writes to her his own Kesuvah which includes a Shi'abud on his own property he may then sell whatever he wants even after the Nesu'in.