On the Q/A sheet for daf 9, you ask the source of the placement of Hash-m sefasei tiftach at the beginning of the amidah. Your answer is that David Ha'Melech recited it at the end of the 18th chapter of T'hillim. What is the basis for that answer? More importantly, why would its placement at the end of Chapter 18 of T'hillim necessarily mean that the pasuk should precede the amidah? Why would it not mean that it precedes the Yihyu L'Ratzon at the end of the amidah?
Are you trying to say this -- in truth, both Hash-m Sefasei tiftach and Yihyu L'Ratzon should be at the start of the amidah. But since David Ha'Melech placed Yihyu L'Ratzon at the end of the 19th chapter of T'hillim, that verse must follow the 18 brachot.
Morrie Kleinbart, New York, NY
I'm afraid you caught me there. both the question and the answer (which were copied from the archives of the previous cycle) were incorrect.
The question ought to have been why we recite "Yih'yu le'Ratzon ... " at the end of the Amidah seeing as it would be equally appropriate to recite it at the beginning. And the answer is 'because it appears at the end of the eighteenth chapter of Tehilim.
Incidentally, the Pasuk "Hash-m Sefasai Tiftach ... " appears in Chapter 51.
I duly apologize.
This is how the actual questions and answers should look-
questions-
12)
(a) Why did Chazal insert "Yih'yu le'Ratzon Imrei Fi" at the end of the Amidah, when it would have been equally appropriate to insert it at the beginning?
(b) How can we say that David ha'Melech said it after eighteen paragraphs, when it appears at the end of the nineteenth chapter?
answers-
12)
(a) Chazal added "Yih'yu le'Ratzon Imrei Fi" at the end of the Amidah, because it is at the end of the eighteenth chapter of Tehilim that David ha'Melech said it.
(b) Although it appears at the end of the nineteenth chapter of our version of Tehilim, our version is not numbered correctly, since the first two chapters are considered one.
Kol Tuv, Eliezer ChryslerKvod harav
So why do we say Hachem sefatay tiftah at the beginning?
Also in light of the possible hefsek
Thanks
sa
I'm not sure whether you are asking that we should not say 'Hashem, Sefasai Tiftach ... ' at all, or whether we should say it at the end.
To begin with, we already say 'Yih'yu le'Ratzon ... ' at the end, there would be no point in adding 'Hashem, Sefasai Tiftach ... ' as well. And besides, the words fit so beautifully at the beginning, where Chazal placed them.
Rabeinu Bachye explains that we Daven with our hands clasped in front of us, and with our feet together, to demonstrate our utter helplessness (were it not for Hashem's blessings). It is as if we were bound hand and foot. Perhaps that is another reason for someone who is not using a Sidur, to Daven with his eyes shut. How appropriate then to begin with the Pasuk in question, to demonstrate that we are not even able to open our lips to ask Hashem for His blessings without His assistance.
This attitude, in fact, that is based on total humility and helplessness, is the essence of Tefilah.
And as for your Kashya from 'a possible Hefsek', does it still sound like a Hefsek? Actually, the very point the Gemara is making is that the two Pesukim in question (particularly that of "Hashem Sefasai Tiftach") are an intrinsic part of the Amidah (whose text was fixed by Chazal anyway, and who are entitled to insert whatever they see fit).
Kol Tuv,
R. Eliezer Chrysler