why should torah be considered kal because no brocho is needed (clearly written -Rachi)afterwards,knowing that a brocho is needed before, what is not the case for mozon. And why should mozon be considered kal because no brocho is needed before,knowing that a brocho is needed afterwards, what is not the case for torah.I saw the question of the pnei yehochoua but his question is based on the result of the kal vochomer which seems to contradict the basis of the other kal vochomer and that is not my question at all.
david, paris france
You make a good point. However, it is obvious that the Gemara does not consider an "after" Berachah as a fill-in equal to a "beginning" Berachah, and vice versa. Perhaps there is a different idea behind each different Berachah depending on its time position. Therefore, the "before" Berachah and the "after" Berachah are two separate different Chomerim.
All the best,