Shalom Reb Mordechai!
1. In the discussion about the mizmorim, how do the chachamim who don't
darshen semuchim deal with the posuk
SEMUCHIM LE'AD OLAM?
2. What does it mean to say certain sages darshen semuchim and others don't?
As a technique given to Moshe Rabbenu, isn't this followed by every sage?
3. When the gemara says that David Hamelech said shira in his mother's womb,
etc. are these descriptions supposed to be taken literally, that as a
newborn he knew language?
Thanks,
David Goldman
1. The IBN EZRA on that verse explains that "Semuchim" refers to Tzadikim, because Hash-m supports them ("Somecham") and thus they are "supported" ("Semuchim") by Hash-m.
2. Everyone agrees with the hermeneutical rule of "Hekesh," and that it enables things to be learned through the proximity of words in a single verse. There is a dispute, though, whether words in two different consecutive verses may be juxtaposed to teach a Halachah. When applying a Hekesh to words in two consecutive verses, this is called "Semuchin." The dispute itself involves the issue which you pointed out -- is this a technique that Hash-m taught to Moshe Rabeinu, or not? One opinion says that it is a type of a Hekesh, and the other opinion maintains that it is not.
3. The Gemara means that he said Shirah afterwards on the event that occurred earlier (when he was in the womb). (The RASHBA gives a similar explanation later in Berachos on Daf 50a on the Gemara, "B'Makhalos Barchu Hash-m," see INSIGHTS there.)
Be well,
-Mordecai and the Kollel