According to Rebbi Elazar ben Azarya's opinion with regards to the time up until you can eat the korban pesach - What does he do with the word "Be'chipazon"? If we're going to say it means - "untill chazot" - and that's where the argument lies - then what need is there for the gezeriah shavah? as we can go along with R' Akiva's understanding of the verses and just have a difference of opinion with regards to the meaning of "be-chipazon".
Also - do we conclude that there was both "chipazon d'mizrayim" and "chipazon d'yisrael" but when it says in the pasuk "be-chipazon", it is only referiing to one of them? Or was there was their "chipazon" on one of them.
Thank you,
Steven Weiss
Steven Weiss, New York, USA
The Gemara writes specifically that according to Rebbi Elazar ben Azarya, "Chipazon" refers to Chipazon de'Mitzrayim", so their are no 'ifs'.
To answer your question, why can we not say that without the 'Gezeirah-Shavah', Rebbi Elazar ben Azarya might or would have interpreted "Chipazon" as Chipazon de'Yisrael (as is implied), and it is the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' that forces him to interpret it as Chipazon de'Mitzrayim?
And as for your second question, I could ask you whether there is any practical difference between the two sides of your She'eilah.
Nevertheless, here's my answer. One can hardly deny that there was Chipazon de'Mitzrayim at midnight, and Chipazon de'Yisrael in the morning, and as you wrote in the first side of your question, the Machlokes is which one the Pasuk refers to.
Eliezer Chrysler