On 8b rabbi elazar says that a mincha where the kemitza was done in the heichal is valid. The gemara asks questions about this but cannot refute him. I am wondering why rabbi elazar said that his proof is from the spoons of the shulchan? Why didn't he say the same idea that rabbi yochanan gives on 8a & is repeated on 8b-regarding a shlamim that was slaughtered in the heichal. It's valid so that the secondary is not more important than the primary (tafel chamur min haikar). Here too by the mincha the same sevara should apply?!

Yisroel Dovid Berger , Lakewood, USA