Dear Rabbis
In Bechorot 17-18 the sugya deals with the chita of Rabbam Gamliel efchar letamzem
The guemara goes on the prove the concept and frames the mahloket between the rabbana and Rabban Guamliel
It seems somewhat counter intuitive to consider that Shamayim is "e efchar letzamzem" when shamayim knows all and if anything the incapability of determining and exact location or time is for human and certainly not shamayimn
In fact moshe rabenu changes the lashon of Hachem as KE CHATZOT LAYLA when Hachem told him Hatzot Layla!!!
Please let me know
Thank you
Shlomo Amar
The words "bi'Yedei Shamayim" do not refer to Hash-m at all. They only mean that there was no attempt on the part of human beings to make an exact measurement. The Gemara presumes that if human beings made an effort to reach an exact measurement, it might be possible to make such a measurement, and the argument between Rebbi Yosi and the Chachamim is only in a case where it happened somehow that two things occurred simultaneously but it cannot be measured. In such a case it is questionable whether it really is viewed as having occurred at the same time.
Yoel Domb