A man marries a virgin and is exempt from saying the shma because he is preoccupied with the forthcoming mitzva of 'Pru urvu'. Why is a man not exempt if he marries a widow. Let us assume this widow lost her first husband through an illness or accident at a very young age and has no children. Does this man not think of the forthcoming mitzva (pru urvu) as if he was marrying a virgin?
MICHAEL PLASKOW, Netanya, Israel
Dear Michael,
The term Be'ilas Mitzvah only applies to a Besulah.
The Gemara in Sanhedrin (22b) says "Ein Ishah Koreses Bris Ela l'Mi she'Oseh Osah Kli". This is only true of a Besulah; not a Gerushah or Almanah even if they did not bear children. In the case of a Besulah, the Chasan is essentially laying the groundwork for Peru u'Revu (Hechsher Mitzvah)(See Tosfos to Kesuvos 4a, D"H Be'ilas Mitzvah). That is what he is preoccupied with and that is why he is exempt from Keri'as Shema.
Another explanation of why it is called Be'ilas Mitzvah is that the Chasan is removing the Besulim and on this a special Berachah is recited (see Derishah, Yoreh De'ah 193). Again, this obviously only applies to a Besulah.
Kol Tuv,
Yonasan Sigler
This is not a Psak Halachah