The question pertains to the first Perek Berachos-
Why does the Mishnah discuss the earliest time one can recite Krias Shema in the morning but does not discuss the earliest time one can daven shemoneh esrei.
I wanted to answer that since shemoneh esrei follows Krias Shema, there is no need to provide a zman for shemoneh esrei. Clearly, the earliest zman cannot precede that of the zman for Krias Shema. I thought this answer was logical however the magid shiur did not accept this response.
Is there a reason given for the Mishna not discussing the earliest time one can say shemoneh esrei?
Thank you,
Bezalel Weill
Sholom Rav,
Without going into details, it seems to me that the Mishnah needs to present the time for Keri'as Shema, because it is dependent on the interpretation of "be'Shochb'cha u've'Kumecha". Indeed, we see in the opening Sugya, that it is far from simple. The times of the Amidah on the other hand, which is mi'de'Rabbanan, follow those of the Korban Tamid, and can be taken from there, in which case it is not necessary to introduce a special Mishnah to teach them to us.
Be'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler