Why does Moshe repeat "Va'esnapal ... ", having already written it in Pasuk 18?


Rashi: In order to add the basic text of his Tefilah there, which the Pasuk goes on to quote. 1


Rashbam: He repeated it here as part of the rebuke, to point out to the people that although he succeeded in preventing their immediate annihilation, it was only partially successful, because once they entered Eretz Cana'an and defeated the Cana'anim - thereby negating the argument in Pasuk 28 - that Hashem was incapable of conquering the land, there was nothing preventing Hashem from then destroying them. 2


Rashbam: Then why did he not simply add the text in Pasuk 18?


Refer to 10:1:1:1.

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