Seeing as Moshe avoided mentioning sins that Yisrael performed prior to Matan Torah (as the Ramban explained n Pasuk 8), why did he insert Masah here?


Ramban (citing the Ibn Ezra): What the Torah means to say is that they tested Hashem by grumbling in Moseirah like they tested Him in Marah 1 and did not learn a lesson from what happened there. 2


Refer also to 9:23:1:1*


See Beshalach 17:7 & 8. See also Ibn Ezra.


Why did Moshe mention the sins of Tav'eirah Masah and Kivros ha'T'avah here?


Ramban: Refer to 9:8:1:1 & 9:23:1:1*.


Seforno: Because, although they saw how, when they angered Hashem, it caused the Luchos to be broken and Moshe had to Daven for forty days to repair the damage, it did not deter them from grumbling at Tav'eirah and at Masah 1 and from sinning at Kivros ha'Ta'avah.


This is strange, since the sin of Masah preceded that of the Golden Calf?

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