What is the connection between this Parshah and the previous one?
Ramban (in 8:18): The Torah is presenting additional reasons 1 for ascribing Yisrael's victories over the Cana'anim to Hashem and not to their own prowess - because 1. the Cana'anim are stronger than them and unconquerable, 2 2. their towns were fortified 'up to the heavens' and impregnable 3 and 3. the family of the giants who lived there were invincible. 4
What are the implications of "Gedolim va'Atzumim mikem"?
Why does the Torah insert "Sh'ma Yisrael" here?
Hadar Zekenim: It can be compared to a king who gave his wife two pearls, and she lost one. He told her to guard the other one well. So Yisrael declared "Na'aseh Venishma". When they made the Eigel, transgressing Hashem's command "Lo Sa'aseh l'cha", it is as if they lost the 'Na'aseh'.Therefore The Torah warns them "Sh'ma"
And the same applies to "Sh'ma Yisrael Hashem Elokeinu Hashem Echad".
Rashi (1:28, citing Chulin 90b) writes that "u'Vetzuros ba'Shamayim" teaches that the Torah exaggerates. There it cites what the people heard from the spies. Is it not more reasonable that the Gemara learns from here, where the Torah itself says so?
Refer to 1:28:1:1 and note.
