Why does the Pasuk switch the order here from the first Luchos, to place 'Ishah' before 'Bayis'?
Ramban (on Pasuk 17): Because the Yeitzer ha'Ra for women is the strongest Yeitzer ha'Ra that there is. 1
The question remains however, why in Yisro, the Torah mentions Bayis first?
Why does the Torah insert "Lo Sis'aveh", which it omitted in Yisro?
Rashi: "Lo Sis'aveh" is synonymous with "Lo Sachmod", as is evident from Onkelos who translates it as 've'Lo Seirog.' 1
Ramban (13:9): It comes to include a prohibition against desiring to steal another's object, even if one does nothing about it. 2
Refer to Shemos 20:14:151:1.
Rashi: In the same way as he translates "Nechmad le'Mar'eh" (in Bereishis, 2:9) as 'di'Merageg Lemechzei'. Rashi does not explain however, why the Torah sees fit to insert it?
Ramban: But he does not, either because the owner is stronger than him or because he is afraid being caught by the law-enforcement officers. Rambam (Sefer ha'Mitzvos Lo Sa'aseh 265)
Why does the Torah add "Sadehu"?
Ramban (on Pasuk 17, citing the Mechilta): To teach us that "Lo Sachmod" applies to all property that can be owned - even land. 1
Ba'al ha'Turim: Because they were about to enter Eretz Yisrael, where they would all become land-owners.
Ramban (Ibid.): And not just to Metaltelin, as implied in the Aseres ha'Dibros in Yisro.