Why, does the Pasuk switch the order here, to place 'Ishah' before 'Bayis'?
Ramban: Because the Yeitzer ha'Ra for women is the strongest Yeitzer ha'Ra that there is. 1
Though it is not clear as to why, in Yisro, the Torah mentions Bayis first?
Why does the Torah insert "Lo Sis'aveh", which it omitted in Yisro?
Ramban (in Devarim 13:9): It comes to include a prohibition against desiring something that someone owns even if one does nothing about it; 3 whereas "Lo Sachmod" is confined to where one makes a positive effort to obtain it. 4
Rashi: in the same way as he translates "Nechmad le'Mar'eh" (in Bereishis, 2:9) as 'di'Merageg Lemechzei'.
Though this does not explain why the Torah sees fit to insert it?
The Ramban here adds that he really wants to steal the article, but is deterred from doing so either because the owner is stronger than him or because he is afraid being caught by the law-enforcement officers..
Such as by asking the owner to sell it to him.
And why does it add "Sadeh"?
Ramban (citing the Mechilta): To teach us that "Lo Sachmod" applies to all property that is subject to Kinyan - even Karka. 1
Ba'al ha'Turim: Because they were about to enter Eretz Yisrael, where they all become land-owners.
Ramban: And not just to Metalt'lin, as implied in the Aseres ha'Dibros in Yisro.