1)

Why does the Torah write "bi'Velei Da'as" and not 'bi'Shegagah'?

1.

Sotah, 49a: Bearing in mind that 'Da'as' is synonymous with Torah, it teaches us that if two Talmidei-Chachamim who live in the same town dod not discuss Divrei Torah ogether, one of them will end up dying, the other, going into Galus 1 - as implied in Hoshe'a, 4:6.


1

Rashi: Implying that one of them will kill the other one be'Shogeg. See Torah Tmimah, note 70.

2)

What are the implications of the word "el Achas min he'Arim ha'Eil? Would one have thought that he should flee to all three?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: It implies that he is permitted to flee to any of the towns that he chooses - a man from Reuven was permitted to a town in Menasheh 1 and vice versa - and was not obligated to flee to a town in his own tribe.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: It implies that, once he reaches an Ir Miklat, he is not permitted to move to another one. 2


1

See Oznayim la'Torah.

2

Refer to Bamidbar, 35:19:2:1:4. and See Oznayim la'Torah here.

3)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superlfuous) word "va'Chai"?

1.

Makos, 10a: To teach us that the Arei Miklat must be medium-size towns where there is a source of water and which contain markets wich are well- frequented.

2.

Makos, 10a: To prohibit that placing animal-traps and manufacturing ropes in the Arei Miklat is prohibited - so that the Go'el ha'Dam will not be afforded the means to come and kill the Rotze'ach.

3.

Makos, 10b: To teach us that if a Talmid is obligated to flee to an Ir MIklat, his Rebbe is obligated to accompany him 1 - because Torah is synonymous with life; 2 and by the same token,if a Rosh Yeshivah needs to flee, his Yeshivah is obligated to accompany him.


1

See also Torah Temimah, citing Makos (Ibid.), who learns from here that a arebbe should not teach a Talmid who is not worthy and note 73.

2

As we say in Ma'ariv "Ki Heim Chayeinu ... '. See also Oznayim la'Torah on Pasuk 44.

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