1)

Why did Hashem say "Kisvu" in the plural?

1.

Ramban: Because He wanted Moshe and Yehoshua to be involved in writing it, on order to establish Yehoshua as His prophet in the lifetime of Moshe. 1 The Torah nevertheless writes " Velamdah es B'nei Yisrael" in the singular, because Moshe was the main teacher from whom they learned.

2.

Sanhedrin, 21b: Because it is a Mitzvah for every person to write a Seifer Torah, 2 even if he inherited one from his fathers.


1

Ramban: So Moshe wrote it - as the Torah states in Pasuk 22, and Yehoshua stood next to him and read it and watched as he wrote.

2

Containing the Shirah of 'Ha'azinu'. See Torah Temimah, note 26, who elaborates.

2)

What is "ha'Shirah ha'Zos" referring to?

1.

Rashi, Ramban, Rashbam (in Pasuk 30), Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It is referring to the Parshah of "Ha'azinu" up to "Ve'chiper Admaso Amo" (32:43). 1

2.

Ha'Kesav ve'ha'Kabalah (citing the Ralbag) and Nedarim 38a: It refers to the entire Torah 2 - and we learn from here the Mitzvah to write a Seifer Torah.


1

Refer to 31:19:151:1-4.

2

Refer to 31:19:151:4.

3)

Why did Hashem say "Kisvu" in the plural?

1.

Ramban: Because He wanted Moshe and Yehoshua to be involved in writing it, on order to establish Yehoshua as His prophet in the lifetime of Moshe. 1 The Torah nevertheless writes " Velamdah es B'nei Yisrael" in the singular, because Moshe was the main teacher from whom they learned.

2.

Sanhedrin, 21b: It is a Mitzvah for every person to write a Seifer Torah, 2 even if he inherited one from his fathers.


1

Ramban: So Moshe wrote it - as the Torah states in Pasuk 22, and Yehoshua stood next to him and read it and watched as he wrote.

2

Containing the Shirah of 'Ha'azinu'. See Torah Temimah, note 26, who elaborates.

4)

What are the implications of the phrases "Velamdah es B'nei Yisrael, Simah be'Fihem"?

1.

Eruvin, 54b #1: "Velamdah es B'nei Yisrael" implies that one should teach one's Talmid as many times as necessary for him to absorb the lesson, 1 and "Simah be'Fihem" that he should teach him until he has organized it clearly in his mind. 2

2.

Eruvin, 54b #2: "Simah be'Fihem" is a hint that one can only acquire the Torah via 'Simanim' 3 - 'Al Tikri "Simah", Ela 'Simnah'.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 27.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 28.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 29.

5)

Why does the Torah refer to 'Ha'azinu' as a Shirah?

1.

Ramban: Because it is always sung and played in the form of a Shirah, and because it is written in the form of a Shirah.

2.

Rashbam (in Pasuk 30): Any arrangement of words is called a 'Shirah'.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

6)

Rashi writes that "ha'Shirah ha'Zos" refers to Ha'azinu. But the Gemara in Nedarim, 38a which learns from here the Mitzvah to write a Seifer Torah here, clearly holds that it refers to the entire Torah?

1.

RS"R Hirsh and ha'Kesav ve'ha'Kabalah #1: "ha'Shirah" refers to Ha'azinu. However, since one is not permitted to write part of a Seifer, the Mitzvah must be to write a complete Seifer Torah. 1

2.

Ha'Kesav veha'Kabalah #2: The Mitzvah is to write a Seifer Torah which contains Shiras Ha'azinu. 2

3.

Ha'Kesav veha'Kabalah #3: Even if "ha'Shirah" refers only to 'Ha'azinu', since the Torah obligates us to write the Shirah (a warning to keep the Torah's Mitzvos), it is obvious that one must write the entire Torah (which contains the Mitzvos)!

4.

Ha'amek Davar: Regarding Moshe [who needed to teach it to B'nei Yisrael], it refers to 'Ha'azinu'; but regarding Yisrael, who have a Mitzvah to write it, it refers to the entire Torah.


1

Seifer ha'Mitzvos (Asei 18) cites this proof. Chasam Sofer (38a)

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