1)

What is "Vayevi'enu el ha'Makom ha'Zeh" referring to?

1.

Rashi: It refers to the Beis-Hamikdash. 1

1

See Torah Temimah citing the Sifri and note 30.

2)

Why does the Torah invert the order of events when it writes "Vayevi'enu el ha'Makom ha'Zeh Vayiten lanu ha'Aretz ha'Zos"?

1.

Sifri: Beause what he means is that on the merit of bringing Bikurim to the Beis-Hamikdash, Hashem gave us Eretz Yisrael. 1

1

Refer to 26:1:1.1:1 and Torah Temimah, note 31.

3)

Is Eiver ha'Yarden, which is not 'Zavas Chalav u'Devash', subject to Bikurim?

1.

Yerushalmi Bikurim, 1:8: The Torah inserts the word "Eretz Zavas Chalav u'Devash", implying a land, part of which is Zavas, Chalav u'Devash'. 1

1

See also Torah Temimah, note 32.

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