What are the implications of"le'Einei ha'Zekeinim"?
Yevamos, 101a: It implies that if the Zekeinim are blind, the Chalitzah is Pasul. 1
Yevamos, 106b: It implies that the Zekeinim must see the spit as it leaves the mouth of the Yevamah. 2
Targum Yonasan: It implies that the spit must be sufficient for the Zekeinim to see as it leaves the mouth of the Yevamah
What is the definition of a ''Na'al'?
What is the meaning of "Vechaltzah Na'alo me'al Raglo"?
Yevamos, 102a: Since the Torah writes "me'al Raglo", it must mean 'And she shall remove the shoe from off his foot. 1
Yevamos, 102a: "me'al Raglo" implies "me'al", 've'Lo meal de'me'al'. Consequently, if the Yavam is wearing two pairs of shoes and the Yevamah removes the top pair, the Chalitzah is Pasul. 2
Bearing in mind the Lashon "Vecheltzah Na'alo", is the Yavam allowed to wear a borrowed shoe?
Yevamos, 103b: The fact that the Torah repeats the word "ha'Na'al" in Pasuk 10 teaches us that a borrowed shoe is Kasher for Chalitzah, and the Torah writes "Na'alo" to render Pasul a shoe that does not fit the Yavam and a shoe without a heel.
Is a woman who has no hands eligible to perform Chalitzah?
Yevamos, 105a: Seeing as the Torah does not write 'Vechaltzah be'Yado', she is permitted to perform Chalitzah with her teeth. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 148.
Seeing as the definition of "Regel" is 'foot' (See Torah Temimah, citing Yevamos, 103b and note 151), is the Yevamah Yotzei if she removes a long boot by untying the straps from the leg of the Yavam below the knee?
Yevamos, 103a: Yes, since the Torah writes "me'al Raglo" - but not above the knee, because that would be 'me'al de'me'al.
From which foot does the Yevamah remove the Yavam's shoe?
Yevamos, 104a: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Regel" "Regel" from Metzora, in Metzora, 14:14, that she ust remove it from the right foot - and that if she removes it from the left foot, it is Pasul.
What is the purpose of the removal of the Yavam's shoe?
Seforno: To show the Yevamah's contempt of the Yavam,who declined to build the house that his brother began to build via Kidushin. 1
Rashbam #1: It is the normal way of showing that she will acquire from him his deceased brother's inheritance. 2
Rabeinu Bachye: As long as he intends to do Yibum and establish seed for his brother, it is as if his brother was alive. When he declines to do so, he is conceding that he died, and he must therefore mourn for him. And removing his shoe is a sign of mourning. 3
Chizkuni: To demonstrate that if he will perform Yibum, she will serve him like a Shifchah [Cana'anis] to her master', and he responds that (nevertheless) he does not want to take her. 4
Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Mekubalim): When the Yevamah spits and removes the Yavam's shoe it is a tikun (a rectification) for the Neshamah os shis deceased brother. 5
Oznayim la'Torah: Something wwhich she - who was part of the body of his deceased brother - wanted to share with him (Sefer ha'Chinuch), and also because he snybbed her by intimating that he only tuened down the Mitzvah of Yibum because she did not find favor in his eyes.
Rashbam: Like we find by Bo'az (See Rus, 4:7, 8). However, one can ask that these actions were different! There, P'loni waived his rights [to Bo'az] to redeem and marry Rus, which resembled Yibum. Here, the Yevamah acquires the right to collect her Kesubah from her dead husband's property! (If the Yavam performs Yibum, she does not collect her Kesubah until after the Yavam dies or divorces her. - PF). Also the text of Chizkuni should say 'He is Makneh (transfers ownership to her', like the Magi'a says. See also Oznayim la'Torah who also queries the Rashbam.
See also Oznayim la'Torah, DH 've'Chaltzah Na'alo' #2.
This requires investigation, since she removes his shoe only after he says 'I do not want to take her'! Also, what is the source to say that she is willing to be like a slave?
As, in any event, the entire Yibum process is a Sod (beyond our comprehension). See Oznayim la'Torah DH "Vechaltzah Na'alo #1. who elaborates.
What are the connotations of "ve'Yarkah be'Fanav"?
Rashi: It means 'She shall spit (not in his face, but) in front of him 1 (on the ground).
Yevamos, 106b: It implies that if the wind blows away the spit before it reaches a point in front of the Yavam's face, it is Pasul. 2
Rambam, Hilchos Chalitzah, 4:5: It teaches us that if the Yavam must see the spit and that consequently, if he is blind, Lechatchilah, 3 he should not perform Chalitzah.
What if the Yevamah spits blood?
Yevamos, 105a: The Chalitzah is Kasher, since the Torah did not write 'Veyarkah Rok' - provided she sucked before spitting, it in which case it is impossible for there not to be some spit mixed with the blood. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 153. The conditon seems to contradict the initial answer, since, if the Torah did not mention spit, why is the sucking necessary? The same question applies on the Gemara there in 106b, which renders Pasul where the Yevamah spits after eating garlic or a seed called 'Gargushta', which produces a lot of spit and hesr spitting is therefore not natural. See also Torah Temimah, note 154.
Why does the Yevamah spit in front of the Yavam?
Seforno: Refer to 25:9:2:1.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Ansah ve'Amrah"?
Sotah, 32a: To teach us via a Gezeirah Shavah "Ve'ansah Ve'amrah" "Ve'anu ve'Amru" from the Levi'im by Har Gerizim, and Har Eival) - in Ki Savo, 27:14 - that she must recite the Pasuk in Lashon ha'Kodesh. 1
Yerushalmi Yevamos, 2:1: To teach us that someone dictates to her what to say. 2
Having written "ve'Ansah", why does the Torah add "ve'Amrah"?
What are the implicatins of "Kachah Ye'aseh la'Ish"?
Yevamos, 104b: It implies that every act in connection with Chalitzaah is crucial 1
Since "Kachah" always implies this.
Why does the Torah write "asher Lo Yivneh es Beis Achiv" - in the future?
Rashi: To teach us that, once Chalitzah has been carried out, the Yavam (or any of the brothers - Yevamos, 7b) is no longer permitted to perform Yibum with the Yevamah (or with her Tzaros (rival wives) - Yevamos, 7b). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 143.
What are the implications of the words asher Lo Yivneh es Beis Achiv"?
Yevamos, 44a: It implies that if a man dies and leaves two wives, the Yavam need only perform Yibum or Chalitzah with one of them ('Bayis Echad hu Boneh ... '), and the other one is permitted to get married. 1
Rambam, Hilchos Yibum, 6:14: It implies that if a man dies and leaves two wives, the Yavam only only performs Yibum or Chalitzah with one of them if they are both permitted, to preclude where one of them is an Isur Ervah. 2
