1)

What are the implications of "Vehayah ha'Bechor"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that the oldest brother is the one who should perform Yibum 1 (Lechatchilah). 2

1

Refer to 25:5:3:3.

2

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2)

Why does the Torah add the words "asher Teiled"?

1.

Rashi and Ramban #1 (citing the Sifri): To preclude an Ailonis 1 (and the wife of a Saris, whose name is blotted out - Ramban) from Yibum. 2

1

Rashi: Who is unable to bear children.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 96.

3)

What are the implicatons of the phrase "Yakum al-Shem Achiv"?

1.

Rashi, Ramban #2 (citing the Sifri) and Targum Yonasan: It implies that whoever performs Yibum inherits his deceased brother's property 1 (even if he does so based on the testimony of the Yevamah - Yevamos, 117b). 2

2.

Ramban #2: It is a promise - that they will have a child (who will replace the Neshamah of the deceased brother). 3

3.

Yevamos, 24a: It implies that the one who performs Yibum inherits the property of the deceased brother - even if he is not the Bechor. 4

1

See Torah Temimah, note 99.

2

See Torah Teninah, note 100. Se also Torah Temmah, citing Yevamos, 24a and notes 101 & 102.

3

See Ramban, who explains that hee current D'rashos are Asmachtos. See R. Chavel's footnotes.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 98.

4)

Why can we not explain the Pasuk literally - that the first baby is named after the deceased brother?

1.

Yevamos, 24a: Because a Gezeirah Shavah "al Shem" "al Shem" from "Acheihem Yikar'u be'Nachalasam" in Bereishis, 48:6 (regarding Efrayim and Menasheh) teaches us that the Pasuk is discussing (not naming the son of the Yavam, but) the Yavam inheriting his brother. 1

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because then the Torah ought to have written 'Yakum al-Shem Achi Aviv ha'Meis'.

1

See also Ramban, who proves it from the Pasuk in Rus, 4:10 "ve'Lo Yikareis Shem ha'Meis me'Im Echav ... ", in spite of which they did not call the baby that was subsequently born to Rus, Machlon. Se also Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Vehayah ha'Bechor' #1.

5)

Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word " al-Shem Achiv ha'Meis"?

1.

Yevamos, 24a: To teach us that even if after Shimon performs Yibum with the wife of his brother Reuven, he dies, Levi is permitted to perform Yibum with her. 1

1

Yevamos, Ibid: In spite of the fact that a woman with the Zikah of two Yevamin is not subject to Yibum. Refer to 25:5:3:1:1.

6)

What are the implications of "ve'Lo Yimacheh Shemo mi'Yisrael"?

1.

Rashi and Ramban (citing the Sifri): It implies that if the name of the deceased is already blotted out - he is a Saris who cannot have children - then his brother is exempt from Yibum. 1

2.

Seforno: It implies that the baby that is subsequently born to the Yavam and the Yevamah are a perpetuation of the deceased brother's name - inasmuch as the Yibum is based on his initial Kidushin with the Yevamah. 2

3.

Yerushalmi Yevamos, 4:1: It implies that if Reuven dies, leaving his wife pregnant, she is not subject to Yibum - since Reuven's name is not blotted out. However, she is not permitted to get married to someone else, until it is known that the baby will live. 3

4.

Oznayim la'Torah It implies that as a result of Yibum, the Neshamah of the deceared brother will not be erased from the communal Neshamah of Am Yisrael. 4

1

Refer to 25:5:4:1*. See also Torah Temimah, note 104..

2

Seforno: Which explains why (min ha'Torah) the Yavam does not require a fresh Kidushin before performing Yibum.

3

See Torah Temimah, citing the Yerushalmi, Ibid. and note 105.

4

See Oznayim la'Torah, whoi explains the difference between the Lashon here and the Lashon mentioned by Bo'az, in Rus, 4:10 "Lo Yikareis Shem ha'Meis mi'im Echav ... ".

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