Why does the Torah insert the phrase "Acharei asher Hutama'ah"?
Ramban #2: The Pasuk means simply 'now that she became Tamei (forbidden) to her first husband - by virtue if her having had relations with another man (her second husband - albeit be'Heter).
Why does the Torah forbid a man to take back his wife once she has been married to somebody else?
Ramban and Seforno: To avoid wife-swapping - where (at the request of Shimon - Seforno) Reuven divorces his wife in the evening, Shimon marries her and lives with her for one night and divorces her, and Reuven takes her back in the morning.
Why does the Torah describe this as an abomination?
Seforno: Refer to 24:4:2:1.
What are the implications of "To'evah Hi"?
Targum Yonasan: It implies that although she is an abomination, the children that she will bear are Kasher. 1
Peirush Yonasan (citing Yevamos, 11b): 'Hi To'evah, ve'Ein Banehah To'evin'.
Why does the Torah add "ve'Lo Sachti es ha'Aretz"?