hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah insert the phrase "Acharei asher Hutama'ah"?

1.

Rashi and Ramban #1: To include a Sotah who secluded herself with a man 1 in the prohibition of taking her back. 2

2.

Ramban #2: The Pasuk means simply 'now that she became Tamei (forbidden) to her first husband - by virtue if her having had relations with another man (her second husband - albeit be'Heter).


1

Ramban (citing Yevamos, 11b): This cannot be taken literally - See Ramban - but refers to a woman who committed adultery with another man - in addition to the woman who married another man, about whom the Pasuk is speaking.

2

See Sifsei Chachamim.

2)

Why does the Torah forbid a man to take back his wife once she has been married to somebody else?

1.

Ramban and Seforno: To avoid wife-swapping - where (at the request of Shimon - Seforno) Reuven divorces his wife in the evening, Shimon marries her and lives with her for one night and divorces her, and Reuven takes her back in the morning.

3)

Why does the Torah describe this as an abomination?

1.

Seforno: Refer to 24:4:2:1.

4)

What are the implications of "To'evah Hi"?

1.

Targum Yonasan: It implies that although she is an abomination, the children that she will bear are Kasher. 1


1

Peirush Yonasan (citing Yevamos, 11b): 'Hi To'evah, ve'Ein Banehah To'evin'.

5)

Why does the Torah add "ve'Lo Sachti es ha'Aretz"?

1.

Ramban #1: Because of the major sins to which this can lead. 1

2.

Ramban #1 (citing the Sifri): It is a warning to the Beis-Din to make sure that men do not take their wives after they have been married to someone else.


1

Refer to 24:4:2:1.

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