1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Veyatz'ah mi'Beiso"?

1.

Sifri: To teah us that, in the case of divorce, it is the woman who is obligated to move and not the man. 1

2.

In order to compare Gerushin to Kidushin ("ve'Yatz'ah ve'Haysah") in all of the following issues: a. Just as a father can receive his daughter's Kidushin, 2 so too, can he receive her Get, (he has the authority to marry her off - Kesuvos, 47a) b. A woman can be acquired with a Sh'tar just as she is divorced with a Sh'tar (Kidushin, 5a); c. A Sh'tar Kidushin, like a Get, must be written Lish'mo and d. with the woman's knowledge (Kiduhin, 9b) 3 - like a Get, which must be written with the knowledge of the husband - who, like the woman who is being Makneh herself, is being Makneh the Sh'tar, e. Like by a Get, the woman can be acquired via her Shali'ach; f. Like a Get, a Sh'tar Kidushin that is written on what is attached, is Pasul; 4 g. Just as by a Get that the husband throws his wife in the street, she is divorced provided it is closer to her than to him, so too, in the equivalent case by Kidushin is she betrothed; h. Just as, if the husband says to his wife that she is permitted to the whole world except for P'loni, she is not divorced, 5 so too, if he betroths a woman and tells her that she is forbidden to the whole world except for P'loni, she is not betrothed.

3.

Yerushalmi Yevamos, 9:5: To teach us - via the juxtaposition of "Vehaysah" to "Veyatz'ah" - that a married woman is only permitted to marry another man after she is divorced. 6


1

See Torah Temimah, note 52 and Oznayim la'Torah.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 53. In fact, most of the issues discussed here were discussed in the previous Pasuk. See notes 54-60.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 57

4

See Torah Temimah, note 58.

5

See Torah Temimah, note 60.

6

See Torah Temimah, note 63.

2)

Why does the Torh insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Halchah"?

1.

Sifri: To teach us via the juxtaposition of "ve'Haysah" to "ve'Halchah" - that when a divorced woman marries another man, she is obligated to move away from the neighborhood where her ex-husband lives. 1

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: It means that, after being divorced for the unpleasantries that she perpetrated, she moves to a location where she is not known and marries a man form there.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 64, who elaborates.

3)

What are the implications of the word "ve'Haysah le'Ish Acher"

1.

Kesuvos, 46b: With reference to the three forms of Kidushin - Kesef, Sh'tar and Bi'ah - it implies that they are all equal and that, just as the girl's father acquires her Kesef Kidushin, so too, does he have rights in her Kidushei Sh'tar and in her Kidushei Bi'ah. 1


1

See Torah Temimah, note 65. Kesuvos, Ibid: Consequently, if a man says to a girl that he is being Mekadesh her with Bi'ah on condition that her father agrees, the condition takes effect - despite the fact that the act cannot be performed by a Shali'ach.

4)

What are the implications of "le'Ish Acher"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that the second man is not in the same league as the first one - since he took into his house the wicked woman 1 that the first man sent away. 2

2.

Kidushin, 67b: It implies that the woman is permitted to marry someone who is aa stranger to her, but not relations who are subject to Kares and on whom Kidushin will therefore not take effect. 3

3.

Gitin, 82b: It implies that she is permitted to marry any man - to preclude where her husband gave her a Get permittig her to maary any man with the exception of P'loni. 4


1

Oznayim la'Torah: Without bothering to inquire as to why she divorced.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 69.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 67

4

See Torah Temimah, note 68.

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