What are the connnotatons of KiYikach Ish Ishah"?
Kidushin, 4b #1: The Pasuk means 'When a man aquires a woman', and the Lashon 'Kichah' implies with money - as the Torah writes in Chayei Sarah Bereishis, 23:13. "Nasati Kesef ha'Sadeh Kach mimeni". 1
Kidushin, 4b #2: It teaches us that it is the man who must take the woman ('Harei At Mekudeshes Li') and that if the woman is the one who does the taking, ('Hareini Arusech') she is not betrothed. 2
Kidushin, 6a: It implies that the man must take the woman - 'Harei At Mekudeshes Li', and not himself - 'Hareini Ishech, Ba'alech or Arusasech, and that if he does, the Kidushin does not take effect. On the other hand, based on this Pasuk, if he declares 'Harei At Lekuchasi', she is betrothed. 3
Kidushin, 9a: It teaches us that if the man betroths a girl with a Sh'tar he must write in the Sh'tar 'Harei Bitcha 4 Mekudeshes li'. 5
Yevamos, 55b: See answer #1. We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah 'Kichah' 'Kichah' from Chayvei Kerisos (from Nidah) 6 - in Kedoshim. 20:21 that not only Bi'ah, 7 but also Ha'ara'ah acquires a woman.
See Oznayim la'Torah, who, citing the Ha'amek Davar, explains the format of the Pasuk.
See Torah Temimah, note 3. The reason for this is because it is the way of the man to to look for the woman and not vice-versa. See Torah Temimah, citing Kidushin, 2b and note 9.
See Torah Temimah, note 5.
See Torah Temimah, note 5.
Kidushin, Ibid: Even though he is the acquirer, and in the case of a document of sale, it is the seller who writes the Sh'tar.
See Torah Temimah, note 1.
What are the implications of the word "Ki Yikach Ish Ishah?
Rashi in Kesuvos, 73b: It implies that a Katan 1 is not eligible to be Mekadesh a woman (and from the Lashon "ki Yikach" we learn that if the man declares 'Harei At Lekuchasi', the Kidushin is valid - Kidushin, 6a).
See Torah Temimh, note 7.
What are the implications of the word "Ki Yikach Ish Ishah?
Kidushin, 7a: It implies that he must betroth the whole woman and that if he declares "Harei Chetzyech Mekudeshes li', the Kidushin does not take effect. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 10.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "u'Be'alah"?
Kidushin, 4b: To teach us that a man can aquire a woman with Bi'ah. 1
What are the connotations of the words "Ki Matza bah Ervas Davar"?
Gitin, 90a #1 (according to Beis Shamai): We learn from here that a man should not divorce his wife unless he found her guilty of adultery (via two witnesses). 1
Gitin, 90a #2 (acording to Beis Hillel): We learn from the word "Ervas Davar" that he may divorce her even if she merely burnt his food - deliberately. 2
Gitin, 90b: It teaches us that if a woman goes out with her hair ucovered, who spins yarn in the market (thereby uncovering her arms), who has slits in the sides of her dress and who bathes in the same location as men, it is a Mitzvah to divorce her. 3
Seeing as the Torah will write "Ki Matza bah Ervas Davar", why does it insert the phrase "Vehayah Im Lo Matz'ah Chein be'Einav"?
Gitin, 90a (according to R.Akiva): We learn from here that he is permitted to divorce his wife even if he finds a woman who is more beautiful than her. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 12, who elaborates. It is not clear however, as to why the Torah inserts it accoreding to Beis Shamai amd Beis HIllel.
Why does the Torah write both "Vehayah Im Lo Simtza Chein be'Einav" and "Ki Matza vah Ervas Davar"?
Rashi: To teach us that, if his wife is guilty of adultery, it is a Mitzvah to divorce her, and she should not find favor in his eyes. 1
Why does the Torah add the word "Vekasav lah"?
Gitin, 20a: In order to extrapolate "lah" - Lishemah 1 - that the Get must be written specifically with the intention of divorcing his wife 2 (and that it cannot be used to divorce his wife and somebody else's - Gitin, 87a). 3
Gitin, 23a #2 (according to R. Meir) 4 : The witnesses must sign the Get Lish'mah - specifically with the intention of divorcing the man's wife.
Chagigah 4a: We learn, via a Gezeirah Shavah "Vekasav lah" "Chufshah Lo Nitan lah" -Vayikra 19:20 - that an Eved Cana'ani is obligated to perform Mitzvos like a woman - thereby exempting him from Mitzvas Asei that are time-bound.
Gitin, 24b: It renders Pasul a Get that was written for Reuven's wife from being used to divorce the wife of Shimon. 5
Gitin 39b: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Vekasav lah" "Chufshah Lo Nitan lah" - Vayikra 19:20) - that a woman is divorced with a document, like an Eved Cana'ani is set free with a document. 6
What are the implications of "Sefer Kerisus"?
Gitin, 21b: It implies that the Get must separate them completely. 1 Consequently if it contains a stipulation that binds her permanently, 2 it is invalid.
Divrei Eliyahu: One writes three expressions of severence in a Get
See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Vekasav lah' and DH 'Sefer'.
Torah Temimah (Ibid.): Such as 'This is your Get on condition that you never visit your father's house again (or that you never drink wine again - Gitin, 21b. or if he says ' You are permitted to marry anybody except for P'loni' - Gitin, 82b. See Torah Temimah, note 34)..
Some say that the obligation to feed her is only mi'de'Rabanan, though all agree that this is the case with regard to her obligation to work for him. Nevertheless, the Torah hints to how divorce is done in practice (Refer to Bamidbar 15:39:151:1). The custom is to write all three expressions even for an Arusah, even though the latter two obligations apply only after marriage. (PF)
See Torah Temimah, note 26.
See answer #7.
Refer to 24:1:151:5*.
See Torah Temimah, citing Kidushin, 14b and note 30.
See Torah Temimah, note 23.
See answer #3.
Sotah, Ibid: And the Torah writes "Sefer" to confine it to writing on something that lasts - to preclude leaves that whither immediately. See Torah Temimah, note 28.
See Torah Temimah, note 32.
See Torah Temimah, note 33. See also Torah Temimah citing Yerushalmi Gitin, 9:1, which learns it fro"Venasan be'Yadah" - 'she'Yehei Kulo be'Yado'..
With what kind of fluid must a Get be written?
Sifri: Normally, with ink. However, since the Torah writes "Vekasav" S'tam, the Get is Kasher even if it is written with other fluids - such as ointment, red paint, resin or vitriol (a black dye). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 21, who elaborates.
What are the implications of "ve'Nasan be'Yadah"?
Gitin, 78a: It implies that the man must give the Get to his wife, and that, if she picks it up from the floor she is not divorced. 1
Gitin, 21b: The Get is Kasher even if he writes it on the horn of a cow and hands her the cow - but not if he needs to cut off the horn before handing it to her, since the Torah writes "ve'Kasav ... ve'Nasan", without having to perform another act in between. 2
Gitin, 20a: If he hands her he Get, it is Kasher even if it is written on an olive-leaf (which is not worth a P'rutah) or on something that is Asur be'Hana'ah 3 - since there is nothing in the Pasuk to suggest that the Get needs to have an intrinsic value.
Why does the Torah write "Venasan be'Yadah" - and not "Venasan 'lah'?
Sifri: To teach us that it suffices to place the Get in her domain (provided it is guarded) 1 - such as on her roof 2 or in her courtyard or enclosure (or because "be'Yado" means, not 'in her hand', but 'in her domain' 3 - Yerushalmi Gitin, 8:1).
Sifri: Just like her hand is in her domain. See also Torah Temimah, citing Gitin, 77a, which learns this from the word "Venasan" - See note 40.
If he throws the Get on to her roof, the moment it enters the air-space of the roof she is divorced - See Torah Temimah, citing Yerushalmi Gitin, 8:3 and note 45.
As in Chukas Bamidbar, 21:26 "Vayikach es Kol Artzo mi'Yado".
What are the implications of the (otherwise superfluous) words "Veshilchah mi'Beiso" See Torah Temimah, note 50?
Kidushin, 6a: It implies that the man must divore his wife from him and not himself from his wife. Consequently, if he hands her the Get and declares 'Eini Ishech', 'Eini Ba'alech' or 'Eini Arusech', she is not divorced. 1
What are the implications of "ve'Nasan be'Yadah"?
Gitin, 79a: It "implies that if a man instructs his wife to take her Get from the ground, she is not divorced until he gives it to her.
Yerushalmi Gitin, 9:11: The fact that the Torah repeats " ve'Nasan be'Yadah in Pasuk 3 teaches us that if the man hands the Get to his wife's Shali'ach, or if his Shali'ach hands it to her or to her Shali'ach, she is divorced. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 44. See also Torah Temimah, citing Kidushin, 41a, which learns from "ve'Shilach" ve'Shilchah" - since the Torah did not write 've'Girshah', and since it repeated "ve'Shilchah" in Pasuk 3 - See note 47 & 48.
