Bearing in mind that the Torah - in the previous Pasuk - involved the mother in the proceedings, why does the girl's father speak and not her mother?
Rashi: This teaches us that a woman should not speak in front of her husband. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 136. See also Oznayim la'Torah.
What are the implications of the father's statement "es Biti Nasati la'Ish ha'Zeh"? Why does the Torah mention it?
Kesuvos, 22a: To teach us that a father 1 is believed to render his daughter (whether she is a Ketanah or a Na'arah) Asur (to everybody, when he declares that he betrothed her) and to permit her [to P'loni], when he says 'to this man' 2 - 'ha'Peh she'Asar hu ha'Peh she'Hitir'. 3
Kesuvos, 46b: To teach us that the father accepts the Kidushin on behalf of his daughter 4 - whether she is a Ketanah or a Na'arah. 5
Kesuvos, 46a: To preclude a Yavam, who, after performing Yibum, comes to render Pasul his brother's marrige to this girl. 6
Ramban (Pasuk 17, citing Sotah, 23b): A mother cannot be Mekadesh her daughter.
See Torah Temimah, note 140.
Though in reality, we know this from a S'vara. See Torah Temimah, note 139.
He also receives the money in the event that the Chasan betrothes her with money.
See Torah Temimah, note 137.
See Torah Temimah, note 141.
