What are the connotations of "Alilos Devarim"?
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 4:4: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Alilos Devarim" "Alilos Devarim" from Pasuk 16, that it refers to her having committed adultery. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 130.
What exactly is the case? What does the man expect to gain through his claim?
Ramban (on Pasuk 13): After betrothing and marrying her, he did not enjoy the first time he was intimate with her and claims before Beis-Din that she committed adultery after the betrothal 1 and that she is Chayav Sekilah, in order to exempt himself from having to pay her Kesubah.
Ramban: Otherwise the Torah would not have written "Liz'nos Beis Avihah" - See Pasuk 21. See also Sifsei Chachamim on Pasuk 20.
Seeing as the Chasan backs-up his claim with witnesses, as the Gemara explains in Kesuvos, 46a - why does the Pasuk begin with the assumption that he is guilty of Motzi-Shem-Ra?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, based on the Midas Tzeni'us of B'nos Yisrael, we can safely presume that in the majority of cases, the girl did not commit adultery. 1
Why does the Torah insert the word "ha'Zos", implying that the woman is in Beis-Din, too?
Rashi: To teach us that one can open a case in Beis-Din only in the presence of the defendant. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 132.
What are the implications of the word "es ha'Ishah ha'Zos Lakachti'?
What if the Chasan is Motzi-Shem-Ra on his newly married wife without having been intimate with her?
