1)

What is the significance of the sequence of the current Parshiyos?

1.

Rashi (in Pasuk 11) 1 : If he marries the Y'fas Tohar, he will come to hate her, 2 and they will bear a son who will become a ben Sorer u'Moreh. 3

2.

Da'as Zekenim: Because he took a Y'fas To'ar, he will have two wives in his house who quarrel, one of whom he will hate. Then one of them will bear him a Ben Sorer u'Moreh. 4 And ultimately, the Torah writes "ve'Chi Yih'yeh be'Ish Chet Mishpat Maves"


1

Refer to 21:11:1:1*.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 91.

3

See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.

4

Like we find with David, who, because he took Talmai, the daughter of Melech Geshor, he had a son (Avshalom) who tried to kill him and was intimate with his concubines, and tens of thousands of Yisre'elim were killed.

5

And by the same token, 'Mitzvah Goreres Mitzvah'. Refer to 22:8:1:1*.

2)

What are the implications of "Sh'tei Nashim"?

1.

Kidushin, 68a: It implies that they are from the same nation 1 - to preclude where one of them is a Nochris.


1

Bccause "Sh'tei", like "Sh'nei" always means that the two items are equal. See Torah Temimah, note 97 DH 'u've'Ta'am ha'Inyan'.

3)

What are the connotatons of "ha'Achas Ahuvah ve'ha'Achas Senu'ah"? Since when does Hashem contend with man's prejudices?

1.

Kidushin, 68a: It means that the one's marriage is beloved, and the other's hated 1 - because it is subject to a La'av. 2 And the fact that the Torah writes "Ki Sih'yenah" teaches us that Kidushin on Chayvei La'avin takes effect.


1

Oznayim la'Torah: Not necessarily in connection with a Y'fas To'ar. See Oznayim la'Torah.

2

Refer also to 21:15:5:1.

4)

What are the implications of "Veyaldu lo Banim ... "?

1.

Bava Basra, 142b: "Veyaldu" implies that it is only a baby who is born that detracts from the extra portion of a B'chor, but not a fetus, even though he does receive a portion of his deceased father's property when he is born. Consequently, if a man dies leaving two boys and a pregnant wife, one divides his property into three, of which the B'chor receives one part - ignoring the fetus - whereas the remainder is divided into three parts of which each of the three sons (including the fetus when he is born). 1

2.

Bechoros, 47b: "Veyaldu" implies a regular birth, to preclude a B'chor who is born by ceasarian section, where he is not entitled to a double portion. 2

3.

Kidushin, 68b: From the combination of :"Ki Sih'yena le'Ish" and "Veyaldu lo" we learn that whenever Kidushin takes effect the baby goes after the father - but when it does not - a Nochris who is married to a Yisrael - it goes after the mother. 3

4.

Sifri: "Vayaldu lo" implies that the baby belongs to him - to preclude the baby of a Shifchah and a Nochris and where it is not known as to whether it is a seventh-month child of the woman's second hunsband or the ninth-month baby of her first one, 4 all of whom are not subject to the Din of Bechorah.

5.

Sifri: "Banim" teaches us that, even though daughters inherit when there are no sons, they are not subjet to the Din of Bechorah. 5

6.

Bava Basra, 127a: "Veyaldu lo Banim" implies that when the baby is born, it is known to be a boy - to preclude a Tumtum who is torn open after he is born and found to be a boy, who does not diminish from the portion of the Bechorah. 6


1

See Torah Temimah, note 99.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 100.

3

See Torah Temimah on Pasuk 13 note 87.

4

See Torah Temimah, note 104.

5

See Torah Temimah, note 106.

6

See answer #1.

5)

Why does the Torah repeat the (ha'Ahuvah ve'ha'Senu'ah")?

1.

Sifri: To incorporate a Bchor from a woman who is a Chayvei Kerisos bi'Yedei Shamayim 1 in the Din of B'chor. 2


1

Refer to 21:15:3:1.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 107.

6)

What are the implications of the (otherwise superfluous) word "Vahayah ha'Ben ... "?

1.

Bava Basra, 126b: It implies that the baby must be known to be a boy when it is born - to preclude a Tumtum who is torn open only after he is born from the Din of Bechorah.

2.

Sifri: Refer to 21:15:152:1.

7)

What are the 'Hey' in "ha'Ben" and the 'Hey' in "ha'Bechor" coming to teach us.?

1.

Bava Basra, 127b: "ha'Ben", 've'Lo Tuntum ve'Androginos'; "ha'Bechor", 've'Lo Safek' - to preclude from the Din of B'chor a Tumtum, an Androginus and a Safek - as to which of two women (who both gave birth at the same time) 1 is his mother.


1

See Torah Temimah, note 109.

8)

The Torah writes that the beloved and hated wife bear sons. If the latter is the firstborn, it should have written them in the opposite order! And why should we think that he can change the Bechorah? And why is one called 'hated'? It is an Aveirah to hate! And why does the Torah give the reason ("Ki Hu Reishis Ono"), which it does not do in connection with most Mitzvos?

1.

Kol Eliyahu and Divrei Eliyahu: We discuss a man who married a woman, divorced her, and remarried. The latter gave birth after seven months, and afterwards his divorcee gave birth to a nine-month baby. Who is considered the Bechor? 'Hated' hints to a divorcee. The father wants to give Bechorah to the first son born. The Torah teaches that it depends on conception (Reishis Ono). 1


1

However, regarding twins, the first born is the B'chor, even if he was not conceived first. Refer to Bereishis 25:26:1:1.

9)

Why does the Torah write "Vehayah ha'Ben ha'Bechor la'Seniyah", omitting the word "Im''?

1.

Abarvenel: Because through Hashgachah P'ratis, 1 the hated wife will always 2 give birth to the B'chor. 3


1

This is also the opinion of the Sifri.

2

Like the Torah writes by Le'ah "Vayar Hashem ki Senu'ah Le'ah, Vayiftach es Rachmah" - Vayeitzei, Bereishis, 29:31 (Oznayim la'Torah).

3

Aleinu Leshabe'ach (Devarim. p.508): By the same token, Hashem always champions the cause of anyone who suffers.

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