What is the difference between the "Shotrim" here - which Onkelos translates as 'Sarchaya', and the "Shotrim" at the beginning of the Parshah, which he translates as 'Pur'anin'?
Oznaym la'Torah: The "Shotrim" at the beginning of the Parshah refers to law-enforcement officers, whose job it was to punish, 1 whereas the "Shotrim" here, whose task it was to sift out the men who, for various reasons, were unfit to fight, and send them home, has nothing to do with punishment, in which case the term 'Pur'anin' would have been inappropriate. 2
Why did the officers now take over from the Kohen Gadol?
Ramban: The Kohen Gadol who serves Hashem, warned them to fear Hashem and promised them salvation, whereas the officers now speak to them from a natural perspective, taking into account that some soldiers are bound to die even on the side that is ultimately victorious, and with that in mind, they order the three specified groups to leave the battle-front, because, since their minds are on their houses, their vineyards and their wives, they are likely to flee.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Asher Banah Bayis"?
Sotah, 43a: To incorporate a. someone who purchased, inherited or received a house as a gift, and b. someone who built a store-house for straw, for wood or for any other commodity, all of whom are also obligated to go home, 1 but not if he built a guard-hut, a sun-porch or a balcony 2 which are not suitable for living. 3
Why was it necessary for those who were about to be sent home to hear he words of encouragement that the Kohen Mashu'ach spoke to the soldiers before they went into battle?
Oznayim la'Torah: In fact, the Pesukim are not written in the correct order and Pesukim 5-9 preceded Pesukim 2-4. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah.
What is the dfinition of "Bayis"?
What are the implications of the word "Bayis Chadash"?
See Torah Temimah, note 20.
What are the inplications of "ve'Lo Chanacho"?
Rashi: It implies that he has not yet begun to live in the house. 1
Targum Yonasan: It implies that he has not yet inaugurated his new house by fixing a Mezuzah.
Sotah, 43a: The suffix "ve'Lo Chanacho" comes to preclude someone who stole a house, 2 who is not sent home.
Yerushalmi Sotah, 5:4: It precludes someone who built a house in Chutz la'Aretz, since it is not a Mitzvah to inaugurate it. 3
Why does the Torah insert the word "Yeilech Veyashov le'Beiso"?
Oznayim la'Torah: It implies that the men concerned go home and return 1 - hinting at what Chazal say, that they are not free from the army, but are required to provide the troops with water and food.
Why do the officers add "ve'Ish Acher Yachn'chenu"?
Rashi: Because that would be distressful. 1
Seforno: Because he may have performed a sin which causes these punishments. 2
Targum Yonasan: The Torah is saying that maybe the sin of not affixing a Mezuzah will cause him to die in battle and enable someone else to live in his house. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: It implies that, in addition to the fear of dying due to not having completed the Mitzvah that he began, and of the possibility that if he is killed, he will not merit burial, he is also worried that others will take over his vineyard, his betrothed and his house. 4 Such is human nature!
As the Torah writes in Ki Savo, 28:30.
Targum Yonasan: And by the same token it is the sin of not redeeming his fruit in the fourth year or of not marrying his betrothed that will cause him to die in battle and allow somebody else to redeem his fruit or to marry his betrothed.
See Oznayhim la'Torah, who elaborates.
What re the implications of "Ish Acher"?
Sifri: It precludes his heirs - such as his son or his nephew, for whom he is not obligated to go home. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 23.
Why does the Torah require someone who did not inaugurate his house, redeem his vineyard or marry his betrothed to return home from the battle-front?
Rashi and Ramban (both in Pasuk 8): To cover -up for those who go home because they are afraid of the sins that they committed. 1
Ramban: Since their minds are on their houses, vineyards or wives, they are likely to flee (because one tends to long for these matters - Moshav Zekenim on 24:5).
Rashbam: Because, the thought that it is his bad Mazel that caused him to have to go to war without inaugurating his house, redeeming his vineyard or marrying his betrothed will cause him to be afraid, which negates the aforementioned command of the Kohen Gadol.
Seforno: Because with these thoughts he will demorilize all the troops around him - as the Torah writes in Pasuk 8.
Riva (citing R"M of Kutzi): Because Moshe knew that he will mention these three Mitzvos in the Tochachah (curses) in Ki Savo Devarim, 28:30 "Ishah Se'areis ve'Ish Acher Yishkavenah, Bayis Tivneh ve'Lo Seishev bah, Kerem Tita ve'Lo Sechalelenah". 2 Consequently, in the event that he is killed, others will say that Moshe's curse took effect and become will be demoralized and unable to stand up against the enemy.
Moshav Zekenim, in 24:5: Based on this, R. Tam ruled that if a man gave a dowry to his daughter, and she died within a year, the dowry should be returned, so that he should not suffer the curse "Vesam la'Rik Kochachem" Vayikra 26:20..
What is the significance of the fact that somebody else will inaugurate his house, marry his betrothed or redeem the fruit of his vineyard?
Rashi: Because the painful thought that someone else will take over his house, his betrothed or his vineyard will render him incapable of fighting with a full heart, thereby endngering hinself and the rest of the troops.
Why does the Torah mention specifically these three Mitzvos, and not someone who did not redeem his B'chor or put Tzitzis on his garment, or other Mitzvos?
Refer to 20:5:4:5.
