What was Moshe referring to when he said "Ka'asher Asu li B'nei Eisav ... ve'ha'Mo'avim ... "?
Rashi #1: He was referring to the beginning of the previous Pasuk - "Ochel ba'Kesef Tashbireini ... ", and not to the end -"Rak E'ebrah be'Raglai".
Rashi #2 (in Bamidbar 21:13): He was hinting at the fact that, like they did with Edom, Yisrael asked Mo'av for permission to pass through their land, but they refused, forcing Yisrael to go round it. 1
Refer to Bamidbar 20:21:151:2-5 and notes.
Rashi (Ibid.): As the Torah writes specifically in Shoftim, 11:17.
Why did Moshe add "ha'Yoshvim be'Ar" and "ha'Yoshvim be'Se'ir"?
Rashbam: Because the Mo'avim who dwelt in other towns did not sell Yisrael food and water, 1 only those who lived in Ar, 2 and by the same token it was only the B'nei Eisav who lived in Se'ir who offered to sell them food and water, whereas those who lived in Edom responded to their request by coming out to meet them with the sword. 3
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Ka'asher Asu li ve'ha'Mo'avim" refers to selling food and water. But the Torah writes in 23:5, in connection with the Mo'avim "Lo Kidmu eschem ba'Lechem u'va'Mayim"?
Ramban (in 23:4), Riva (on Pasuk 28) #1, Moshav Zekenim citing R. Tam, Rosh (in 23:4) and Hadar Zekenim (in 23:8): "Lo Kidmu
Riva: R"M of Kutzi challenges this from the Gemara in Yevamos, 76b, which states that Rus ha'Mo'avah should be permitted since it is normal for men to bring food and water, and not women! SMaG