What was Moshe referring to when he said "Ka'asher Asu li B'nei Eisav ... ve'ha'Mo'avim ... "?
Rashi #1: He was referring to the beginning of the previous Pasuk ("Ochel ba'Kesef Tashbireini ... "), and not to the end ("Rak E'ebrah b'Raglai").
Refer to Bamidbar 20:21:151:2-5 and the notes there.
Why did Moshe add "ha'Yoshvim be'Ar" and "ha'Yoshvim be'Se'ir"?
Rashbam: Because the Mo'avim who dwelt in other towns, did not sell Yisrael food and water, 1 only those who lived in Ar, and by the same token it was only the B'nei Eisav who lived in Se'ir who offered to sell them food and water, whereas those who lived in Edom responded to their request by coming out to meet them with the sword. 2
Ibn Ezra: Melech Edom did not let them pass through his land, which was close to Eretz Kena'an, but Bnei Esav in Se
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Ka'asher Asu Li... veha'Mo'avim" refers to selling food and water. It says "Lo Kidmu Eschem ba'Lechem u'va'Mayim" (23:5)!
Riva (28) #1, Moshav Zekenim citing R. Tam, Rosh (23:4), Ramban (23:4), Hadar Zekenim (23:8): "Lo Kidmu
Riva: R"M of Kutzi challenged this. It says in Yevamos (76b) that Rus ha'Mo'avis should be permitted, for it is normal for men to bring food and water, and not women! SMaG