hebrew
1)

What was Moshe referring to when he said "Ka'asher Asu li B'nei Eisav ... ve'ha'Mo'avim ... "?

1.

Rashi #1: He was referring to the beginning of the previous Pasuk ("Ochel ba'Kesef Tashbireini ... "), and not to the end ("Rak E'ebrah b'Raglai").

2.

Rashi #2 (in Bamidbar 21:13): This hints that, like Edom, Yisrael asked Mo'av to pass through their land, and they refused. 1

3.

Refer to Bamidbar 20:21:151:2-5 and the notes there.


1

As the Torah writes explicitly in Shoftim (11:17).

2)

Why did Moshe add "ha'Yoshvim be'Ar" and "ha'Yoshvim be'Se'ir"?

1.

Rashbam: Because the Mo'avim who dwelt in other towns, did not sell Yisrael food and water, 1 only those who lived in Ar, and by the same token it was only the B'nei Eisav who lived in Se'ir who offered to sell them food and water, whereas those who lived in Edom responded to their request by coming out to meet them with the sword. 2

2.

Ibn Ezra: Melech Edom did not let them pass through his land, which was close to Eretz Kena'an, but Bnei Esav in Se


1

Rashbam: As the Torah testifies in 23:5.

2

Rashbam: Refer to 2:4:2:1.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

3)

Rashi writes that Ka'asher Asu Li... veha'Mo'avim" refers to selling food and water. It says "Lo Kidmu Eschem ba'Lechem u'va'Mayim" (23:5)!

1.

Riva (28) #1, Moshav Zekenim citing R. Tam, Rosh (23:4), Ramban (23:4), Hadar Zekenim (23:8): "Lo Kidmu


1

Riva: R"M of Kutzi challenged this. It says in Yevamos (76b) that Rus ha'Mo'avis should be permitted, for it is normal for men to bring food and water, and not women! SMaG

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