1)

What is the meaning of "u'Vishalta"?

1.

Rashi, Ramban (in Pasuk 4) and Targum Yonasan: It means 'You shall roast it'. 1


1

Ramban (Ibid.): As the Torah wrote in Bo Sh'mos,, 12:8.

2)

If the Torah is referrring to roasting the Korban, why did it write "u'Vishalta" and not 'Vetzalisa'?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: In order to incorporate the Chagigah of the fourteenth, which may be cooked.

3)

What are the connotations of "u'Fanisa ba'Boker"?

1.

Sifri: It teaches us that, after bringing the Korban Pesach, 1 one is obligated to remain overnight in Yerushalayim.


1

Refer to 16:17:2:1.

4)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word u'Fanisa"?

1.

Sifri: To teach us that the obligation to stay in Yerushalayim overnight ectends to whenever one makes one's way to Yerushalayim to bring a Korban - even if the Korban comprises only birds, Menachos, wine oil or wood.

5)

Seeing as the next morning is Yom-Tov, how can the Torah write "u'Fanisa va'Boker... "?

1.

Rashi: Because "ba'Boker" refers to the second morning, the morning after Motza'ei Yom-Yov


1

Refer to 16:7:152.1

6)

What is the reason behind the Mitzvah of Linah?

1.

Torah Temimah: Because of the danger of travelling at night time. 1

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: Having just performed the Mitzvah of Aliyas ha'Regel, one remains in Yerushalayim until the next morning, so as not to convey the impression that coming to the Beis-Hamikdash was a burden and that he cannot wait to go home; but to the contrary, it is difficult for him to leave. 2


1

See Oznayim la'Torah objections to this explanation.

2

As Chazal, quoting Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, said in connetion with Shemini Atzeres 'Kashah Alai P'ridaschem!' ('It is dificult for Me to take leave of you!')

7)

Why does the Torah mention "u'Fanisa va'Boker" (going away in the morning) specifically regarding Pesach?

1.

Riva (citing R. Tam of Orleans): Because, since there are only six weeks between [the end of] Pesach and Shavu'os, it is crucial to leave immediately after Yom-Tov, in order to be able to return in time for Shavu'os, 1


1

Riva: Yerushalayim is in the middle of Eretz Yisrael, which is fout hundred Parash by four hundred Parash, so it takes forty days of walking [at an average pace] to reach the end of Eretz Yisrael and return. If so, how could people in Chutz la'Aretz return in time? (We can say that they went in straight (shorter) paths, like Tosfos said in Bava Metzi'a. (On 28a, Tosfos answered that the settled part of Eretz Yisrael is less. Others answered that people walked faster, or rode on animals, or went also at night. Riva could have asked from Eretz Yisrael itself. The corners are 28 days from the middle! Also, there are six Shabbosos in the six weeks in between, so there are only 36 days to travel!) Refer to Bamidbar 13:25:151:1*.

8)

Bearing in mind the Gemara in Zevachim, 96b, which states that "u'Fanisa va'Boker" makes the entire Yom-Tov like one morning, how can "u'Fanisa va'Boker" refer to the second morning?

1.

Refer to Vayikra 23:39:2:4 and notes.

9)

What are the implications of the (otherwise superfluous) word ve'Halachta le'Ohalecha"?

1.

Pesachim 8b: It implies that they will return to their homes in peace to find everything safe 1 , exactly as they left it (their cows grazing in the field and their chickens pecking in the trash-heaps) - that neither will their enemies take advantage of their absence and steal them, nor will Chayos and weasels not attack them - to teach us the principle "Sheluchei Mitzvah Einan Nizokin, Lo ba'Halichasan 2 ve'Lo ba'Chazirasan'. 3


1

According to the Torah Temimah citing the Iyei ha'Yam, the Gemara is coming to explain why the Torah writes "Ve'halachta le'Ohalecha" and not "li'She'arecha" - See Pasuk 5.

2

Gemara, Ibid.: Which we learn via a Kal va'Chomer from'ba'Chazirisasan', when they are not actually involved in performing a Mitzvah.

3

See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.

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