Why does the Torah insert the Parshah of the Yamim Tovim here?
Ramban: Having discussed the Yamim-Tovim and their Korbanos in Emor and in Pinchas, 1 the Torah now continues with Mitzvos connected with Re'iyah and Simchah 2 with them in Yerushalayim. 3
See Vayikra Perek 23, and Bamidbar, Perakim 28 and 29, respectively.
Ramban: With regard to eating the Shelamim that one brings on Yom-Tov - like Ma'aser Sheini and B'chor, which the Torah just discussed.
Refer also to 15:19:1:1**.
What does "Shamor es Chodesh ha'Aviv" entail?
Rashi: Before Nisan arrives, Beis-Din must1 check that the barley will be ripe in order to sacrifice the Omer on the sixteenth. If not, they must make a leap year (by adding an extra Adar).
Seforno: It entails Beis-Din declaring full months and leap-years when necessary - so that the lunar years coincide with the solar years. 1
Targum Yonasan and Sifra: It entails checking whether Beis-Din need to declare a leap-year, and to make sure that the spring equinox falls in the spring in order to bring the Pesach in the spring. 2
What is the meaning of "Ve'asisa Pesach"?
Seforno: It means that 'You shall bring the Korban Pesach 1 on the day before Chag ha'Matzos'.
Because when the Torah mentions "Pesach" it generally refers to the Korban and not to the Yom-Tov.
Why does the Torah write "Ve'asisa Pesach and not Veheiveisa ... ' or "Vehikravta Pesach"?
Zevachim, 7b: To teach us that all the Asiyos that one performs in connection with the Korban Pesach must be performed 'le'Shem Pesach, and that consequently, if one Shechts the Pesach 1 she'Lo Lish'mo, it is Pasul.
Torah Temimah: Or receives its blood, or carries it to the Mizbe'ach or sprinkles it.
What is the significance of Nisan falling in the spring?
As the Torah writes here - "Ki be'Chodesh ha'Aviv, Hotzi'acha Hashem mi'Mitzrayim ... ".
Why, in the current Parshah, does the Torah not give the dates of any of the Yamim Tovim?
Ramban: The Torah only briefly mentions the month and not the full date, since it has already given the dates above in Parshas Emor.
Seforno (in 15:9): Because the current Parshah concerns thanking Hashem via the seasons, 1 and the dates are therefore irrelevant.
Refer to 15:19:1:1**.
Bearing in mind that Yisrael left Egypt in daytime (as the Torah states in Bamidbar 33:3), why does the Torah add the word "Laylah"?
Rashi: Because Par'oh granted them permission to leave already on the night of the fifteenth. 1
Seforno: Because in the year that they left Egypt, the moon was at its zenith (a full moon, on the night of Makas Bechoros), and Mazel T'leh (the lamb, the Egyptians' god) and the sun were at their peak (at noon), 2 Consequently, they ought to have slaughtered the Korban Pesach 3 at that moment, 4 only since Korbanos can only be brought in the day, it had to be slaughtered in the day and could only be eaten at night to commemorate the event.
Targum Yonasan: Because "Laylah" refers to the eating of the Pesach (which is mentioned at the beginning of the Pasuk). 5
Seeing as the redemption began at night, why did Hashem not take Yisrael out of Egypt immediately?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because as Chazal have taught, one does not start out on a journey at nighttime. 1
See Pesachim, 2a.
If Yisrael needed to leave Egypt by day, why did the redemption begin at night?
