hebrew
1)

Does this mean that it is a Mitzvah on the part of the poor man to call out to Hashem if the wealthy man refuses to assist him?

1.

Rashi: No! Bearing in mind the Pasuk in Devarim 24:15 - "ve'Lo Yikra". 1


1

With reference to an employer who fails to pay his worker on time.

2)

What are the implications of "Vehayah b'cha Chet"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that the wealthy man sins, irrespective of whether the poor man cries out to Hashem or not. 1


1

Rashi: And the reason that the Torah mentions the crying out of the poor man is to hint that the punishment will be heavier if he cries out than if he doesn't.

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