hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah write "Lo Yisyatzev Ish bi'Feneichem ", and not "Ish Lo Yisyatzev ... ' (Sifsei Chachamim)?

1.

Rashi: To teach us that it is not only a man who will be unable to stand against us, but also a nation, a family (tribe) or a woman using witchcraft. 1


1

Rashi: And the Torah adds "Ish" to include even a man like Og Melech ha'Bashan.

2)

To which of the two above-mentioned areas does "Lo Yisyatzev Ish" refer.

1.

Rashbam: It refers specifically to the enemy that lives within the defined borders.

2.

Seforno: It refers even those who live in Chutz la'Aretz.

3)

Where did Hashem issue such a promise?

1.

Rashi: In Shemos 23:27, when He said "Es Eimasi Eshlach Lefanecha ... Venasati es Kol Oyvecha Eilecha Oref".

Chumash: Perek: Pasuk:
Month: Day: Year:
Month: Day: Year:

KIH Logo
D.A.F. Home Page
Sponsorships & Donations Readers' Feedback Mailing Lists Talmud Archives Ask the Kollel Dafyomi Weblinks Dafyomi Calendar Other Yomi calendars